Exponential integral of translation invariant function











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Consider function $f: (mathbb{R}^{d})^{n} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ with spatial invariance property of the form :
$f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = f(x_1 + zeta, x_2 + zeta,..., x_n + zeta)$ for $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d} $.



I want to show that $int limits_{(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n ,=, infty $.



I would like some help.



My only idea is to fix ball $B(0,r) subseteq mathbb{R}^{d}$ and $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d}$ and then compute $int limits_{{B(0,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n , = int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1 - zeta,...,y_n - zeta) ,) dy_1..dy_n = $
$ int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1,...,y_n) ,) dy_1..dy_n , $, where the first equality comes from setting $x_i = y_i - zeta $ and the second from the spatial invariance property.



So we get that the integral of this strictly positive f over any ball is the same. But does it imply that the integral over $(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}$ is $infty$ ?










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    Consider function $f: (mathbb{R}^{d})^{n} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ with spatial invariance property of the form :
    $f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = f(x_1 + zeta, x_2 + zeta,..., x_n + zeta)$ for $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d} $.



    I want to show that $int limits_{(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n ,=, infty $.



    I would like some help.



    My only idea is to fix ball $B(0,r) subseteq mathbb{R}^{d}$ and $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d}$ and then compute $int limits_{{B(0,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n , = int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1 - zeta,...,y_n - zeta) ,) dy_1..dy_n = $
    $ int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1,...,y_n) ,) dy_1..dy_n , $, where the first equality comes from setting $x_i = y_i - zeta $ and the second from the spatial invariance property.



    So we get that the integral of this strictly positive f over any ball is the same. But does it imply that the integral over $(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}$ is $infty$ ?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Consider function $f: (mathbb{R}^{d})^{n} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ with spatial invariance property of the form :
      $f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = f(x_1 + zeta, x_2 + zeta,..., x_n + zeta)$ for $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d} $.



      I want to show that $int limits_{(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n ,=, infty $.



      I would like some help.



      My only idea is to fix ball $B(0,r) subseteq mathbb{R}^{d}$ and $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d}$ and then compute $int limits_{{B(0,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n , = int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1 - zeta,...,y_n - zeta) ,) dy_1..dy_n = $
      $ int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1,...,y_n) ,) dy_1..dy_n , $, where the first equality comes from setting $x_i = y_i - zeta $ and the second from the spatial invariance property.



      So we get that the integral of this strictly positive f over any ball is the same. But does it imply that the integral over $(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}$ is $infty$ ?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Consider function $f: (mathbb{R}^{d})^{n} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ with spatial invariance property of the form :
      $f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) = f(x_1 + zeta, x_2 + zeta,..., x_n + zeta)$ for $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d} $.



      I want to show that $int limits_{(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n ,=, infty $.



      I would like some help.



      My only idea is to fix ball $B(0,r) subseteq mathbb{R}^{d}$ and $zeta in mathbb{R}^{d}$ and then compute $int limits_{{B(0,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(x_1,...,x_n) ,) dx_1..dx_n , = int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1 - zeta,...,y_n - zeta) ,) dy_1..dy_n = $
      $ int limits_{{B(zeta,r)}^{n}} exp(,f(y_1,...,y_n) ,) dy_1..dy_n , $, where the first equality comes from setting $x_i = y_i - zeta $ and the second from the spatial invariance property.



      So we get that the integral of this strictly positive f over any ball is the same. But does it imply that the integral over $(mathbb{R}^{d})^{n}$ is $infty$ ?







      multivariable-calculus vector-analysis






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      asked Nov 27 at 17:52









      vl.ath

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