Htykuut

Let $f$ be a function that is continuous on an interval $[a,b]$ and differentiable on $(a,b)$. Assume $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin (a,b)$. Show f is a constant.

I feel like the obvious set up is by contradiction. If I assume $f$ is not a constant, then it must have a variable, but I'm unsure how to construct an $f$ (without loss of generality) which I can then differentiate to contradict $f'(x)=0$.

any suggestions to start this proof?

Let, $x,yin [a,b]$ then by Mean value theorem we have,
$$f(x)-f(y)=(x-y)f'(xi)$$ for some $x<xi<y$ and as given $f'(t)=0,forall tin(a,b)$ so, $f'(xi)=0implies f(x)=f(y),forall x,yin[a,b]$

Hence, $f$- is constant.

A proof by contradiction:

We have to show: $$(f'(x)=0 implies f(x)=C) ni text{C is a constant}$$

Which is nothing but, $$Pimplies Q$$.

Suppose: $$lnot (Pimplies Q)$$

Which is nothing but, $$P land lnot Q$$

Therefore, suppose:
$$f'(x)=0 land f(x)=h(x) ni text{h(x) is an arbitrary non-constant function}$$

[$(h'(x)neq 0)(forall xneq C^p_n)$; where $C^p$ is the critical point, and $n$ is an arbitrary index.] This bit is not really relevant since, we are comparing $f(x)$ and $h(x)$ on $Asubseteq D$ where the functions are identical: f(x)=h(x).

Notice, however, $$frac{d}{dx}f(x)=frac{d}{dx}h(x)$$

$$frac{df}{dx}=frac{dh}{dx}$$

Recall that we assumed: $h(x) text{ is an arbitrary non-constant function}$

Therefore,

$$frac{dh}{dx}=[k(x) lor L]$$
Where $k(x)$ is an arbitrary function not equal to zero and $L$ is an arbitrary non-zero constant.

However, in either case:

$$frac{dh}{dx}neq0=frac{df}{dx}=f'(x)$$

Therefore, since $lnot (Pimplies Q) implies bot$, then:

$$(Pimplies Q)implies top$$

Let f be a function that is continuous on an interval [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)$

1) that means for all $a le a' < b' le b$ then $f$ is continuous on the interval $[a', b']subset [a,b]$ and differentiable on $(a',b') subset (a,b)$.

and

2) The mean value thereom applies.

So for any $a le a' < b' le b$ we have that there is a $c; a' < c < b'$ where $f'(c) = frac {f(b') - f(a')}2$.

But $f'(c) = 0$ so $f(b') = f(a')$ for all $a le a' < b' le b$.

So $f$ is constant in the interval $[a,b]$ (can't say anythin about $f$ outside that interval.)

Here is an alternate proof which bypasses the Mean Value Theorem, and which I hope might be more conducive to visualization. First, I'll start off with a small topological lemma to abstract out that part of the argument:

Lemma: Suppose $A subseteq [0, 1]$ satisfies $0 in A$, $A$ is closed under the left half-interval topology, and $A$ is open under the right half-interval topology. Then $A = [0, 1]$.

Proof (outline): Let $B := { x in [0, 1] mid [0, x] subseteq A }$ and $c := sup B$ (using the fact that $0 in B$ so $B$ is nonempty) and suppose that $c < 1$. Then from the condition that $A$ is closed under the left half-interval topology, we can conclude that $c in B$. On the other hand, the fact that $A$ is open under the right half-interval topology will now give a contradiction. Therefore, $c = 1$; and again, from the condition that $A$ is closed under the left half-interval topology, this will imply that $1 in B$, so $A = [0, 1]$ as desired. $square$

Now, to use this: to illustrate the essential points of the argument, I will restrict to the case where the domain of $f$ is $[0, 1]$ and $f(0) = 0$. The more general case should be straightforward to prove in a similar manner. Now, fix any $epsilon > 0$, and let $A_epsilon := { x in [0, 1] mid |f(x)| le epsilon x }$. Then $0 in A_epsilon$; and it should be straightforward to see that $A_epsilon$ is closed in the usual topology, and therefore also closed in the left half-interval topology. On the other hand, suppose $x in A_epsilon$; then from the hypothesis $f'(x) = 0$, we see that there exists $delta > 0$ such that whenever $0 < |y-x| < delta$, then $left| frac{f(y) - f(x)}{y - x} right| < epsilon$. Then, if in addition $y > x$, it follows that $|f(y)| le |f(x)| + |f(y) - f(x)| < epsilon x + epsilon |y-x| = epsilon y$; this shows that $A_epsilon$ is open in the right half-interval topology. Now from the lemma, it follows that $A_epsilon = [0, 1]$.

In summary, we have shown that $forall epsilon > 0, forall x in [0, 1], |f(x)| le epsilon x$. We may now interchange the two quantifiers to conclude $forall x in [0, 1], forall epsilon > 0, |f(x)| le epsilon x$. However, this easily implies $forall x in [0, 1], f(x) = 0$.

Well, $f'(x)$ gives the rate of change of $f$ at a point $x$. If $f'(x)=0 forall x in (a,b)$, then $f(x)$ isn't changing, i.e. it is constant, on $(a,b)$.

That's the idea, you just need to show it mathematically.