Find integer solutions of $xy=-1$ (using only elementary ring theory).
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I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?
Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...
ring-theory
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?
Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...
ring-theory
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?
Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...
ring-theory
I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?
Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...
ring-theory
ring-theory
edited Nov 25 at 4:28
asked Nov 25 at 3:55
Cabex
62
62
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.
Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.
Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):
If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Alternatively.
If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.
Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.
Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.
Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.
Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.
Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.
Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.
Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.
Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.
if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.
Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.
Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.
answered Nov 25 at 3:57
Siong Thye Goh
96.1k1462116
96.1k1462116
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
add a comment |
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:04
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:21
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.
If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.
answered Nov 25 at 4:00
Joel Pereira
43618
43618
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
add a comment |
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:03
1
1
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 25 at 4:06
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
@MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
(xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 4:10
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
– Cabex
Nov 25 at 4:23
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):
If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):
If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):
If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.
For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):
If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.
answered Nov 25 at 4:05
Ovi
12.1k938108
12.1k938108
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Alternatively.
If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.
Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.
Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Alternatively.
If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.
Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.
Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Alternatively.
If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.
Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.
Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.
Alternatively.
If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.
Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.
Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.
answered Nov 25 at 4:17
fleablood
66.8k22684
66.8k22684
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
add a comment |
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
– fleablood
Nov 25 at 4:19
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.
Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.
answered Nov 25 at 15:01
Michael Burr
26.4k23262
26.4k23262
add a comment |
add a comment |
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