Find integer solutions of $xy=-1$ (using only elementary ring theory).











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I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?



Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
    My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?



    Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
      My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?



      Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...










      share|cite|improve this question















      I know the answer is obvious: In $mathbb{Z}$ the only solutions of $xy=-1$ are $x=-y=1$ and $x=-y=-1$.
      My problem is that I want to formally prove it and I don't know how to write it. Where do you even begin for such a trivial statement?



      Edit: I would like to prove it viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring. This is, just using the sum and product of integers. No order, no absolute value, etc...







      ring-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 25 at 4:28

























      asked Nov 25 at 3:55









      Cabex

      62




      62






















          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          3
          down vote













          if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.



          Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.



          Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
            – Cabex
            Nov 25 at 4:04










          • I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
            – fleablood
            Nov 25 at 4:21




















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
            – Cabex
            Nov 25 at 4:03






          • 1




            @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
            – Michael Burr
            Nov 25 at 4:06










          • @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
            – Cabex
            Nov 25 at 4:10










          • (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
            – Joel Pereira
            Nov 25 at 4:10










          • Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
            – Cabex
            Nov 25 at 4:23


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):



          If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Alternatively.



            If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.



            Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.



            Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
              – fleablood
              Nov 25 at 4:19


















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              5 Answers
              5






              active

              oldest

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              5 Answers
              5






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

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              active

              oldest

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              up vote
              3
              down vote













              if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.



              Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.



              Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:04










              • I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
                – fleablood
                Nov 25 at 4:21

















              up vote
              3
              down vote













              if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.



              Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.



              Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:04










              • I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
                – fleablood
                Nov 25 at 4:21















              up vote
              3
              down vote










              up vote
              3
              down vote









              if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.



              Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.



              Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              if $xy=-1$, then we we have $|x||y|=1$, that is we must have $|x|=1$ and $|y|=1$.



              Also, determinining $x$ would completely determine $y$.



              Hence we only need to examine what happends when $x=1$ and $x=-1$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 25 at 3:57









              Siong Thye Goh

              96.1k1462116




              96.1k1462116












              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:04










              • I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
                – fleablood
                Nov 25 at 4:21




















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:04










              • I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
                – fleablood
                Nov 25 at 4:21


















              Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:04




              Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:04












              I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
              – fleablood
              Nov 25 at 4:21






              I think Z is defined so that 1 and -1 are the only units by definition. I think.
              – fleablood
              Nov 25 at 4:21












              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:03






              • 1




                @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
                – Michael Burr
                Nov 25 at 4:06










              • @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
                – Joel Pereira
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:23















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:03






              • 1




                @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
                – Michael Burr
                Nov 25 at 4:06










              • @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
                – Joel Pereira
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:23













              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              If xy = -1, then x = $frac{-1}{y}$. If x is an integer, y must divide -1. Therefore, y = $pm$1, which implies x $mp$1.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 25 at 4:00









              Joel Pereira

              43618




              43618












              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:03






              • 1




                @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
                – Michael Burr
                Nov 25 at 4:06










              • @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
                – Joel Pereira
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:23


















              • Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:03






              • 1




                @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
                – Michael Burr
                Nov 25 at 4:06










              • @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
                – Joel Pereira
                Nov 25 at 4:10










              • Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
                – Cabex
                Nov 25 at 4:23
















              Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:03




              Do you think is possible to prove it using just the sum and product defined in the integers? I mean, viewing $mathbb{Z}$ as a ring.
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:03




              1




              1




              @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
              – Michael Burr
              Nov 25 at 4:06




              @Cabex This nearly does what you want, it can be rephrased to say that the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$.
              – Michael Burr
              Nov 25 at 4:06












              @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:10




              @MichaelBurr I don't get it, we can't divide in $mathbb{Z}$. Isn't assuming $y$ has an inverse, or viewing the equation outside the integers?
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:10












              (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
              – Joel Pereira
              Nov 25 at 4:10




              (xy)$^2$ = x$^2$y$^2$ = 1. Since x, y $in mathbb{Z}$, this implies that x$^2$ = y$^2$ = 1. So, x is it's own inverse. Thus x = $pm$ 1.
              – Joel Pereira
              Nov 25 at 4:10












              Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:23




              Right! Using idempotents... thanks a lot!
              – Cabex
              Nov 25 at 4:23










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):



              If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):



                If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):



                  If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  For positive integers (same can be done for negative, or just use absolute value):



                  If $x >1$ and $y>1$, then $xy>1$. So either $x =1$ or $y=1$. If $x=1$, then $1 cdot y=1$, so $y=1$. If $y=1$, then $x=1$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 25 at 4:05









                  Ovi

                  12.1k938108




                  12.1k938108






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Alternatively.



                      If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.



                      Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.



                      Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.






                      share|cite|improve this answer





















                      • Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                        – fleablood
                        Nov 25 at 4:19















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Alternatively.



                      If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.



                      Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.



                      Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.






                      share|cite|improve this answer





















                      • Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                        – fleablood
                        Nov 25 at 4:19













                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote









                      Alternatively.



                      If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.



                      Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.



                      Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      Alternatively.



                      If $x $ or $y $ is $0$, $xy=0$.



                      Otherwise, $|x|ge 1$ and $|y|ge 1$. If $|x|>1$ then $|xy|=|y||x|>|y|ge 1$. So we must have $|x|=1$. And $1=|xy|=|x||y|=|y|$ so $|x|=|y|=1$.



                      Of the four options only $x=y=1;x=y=-1$ work.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 25 at 4:17









                      fleablood

                      66.8k22684




                      66.8k22684












                      • Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                        – fleablood
                        Nov 25 at 4:19


















                      • Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                        – fleablood
                        Nov 25 at 4:19
















                      Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                      – fleablood
                      Nov 25 at 4:19




                      Oops. Sorry. I see someone else had the same idea. I'll delete when I get to an application that let's me.
                      – fleablood
                      Nov 25 at 4:19










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Suppose that $xy=-1$, then $-xy=1$, so $x$ and $y$ are units (by definition). Since the only units in $mathbb{Z}$ are $pm 1$, we can check which combinations result in a product of $-1$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 25 at 15:01









                          Michael Burr

                          26.4k23262




                          26.4k23262






























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