Show that $F[alpha] = { f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$ is a field iff $alpha$ is algebraic over F











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I don't even know where to start in this exercise. Let $E$ be a field extension of $F$. An element $alpha in E$ is algebraic iff $F[alpha] = { f(alpha): f(x) in F[x] }$ is a field. Can anyone give some tips on how to prove it? It seems kind of counterintuitive for me.



edit: I posted an answer to the exercise. If anyone wants to comment to see if it sounds right, I would be very glad.










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    I don't even know where to start in this exercise. Let $E$ be a field extension of $F$. An element $alpha in E$ is algebraic iff $F[alpha] = { f(alpha): f(x) in F[x] }$ is a field. Can anyone give some tips on how to prove it? It seems kind of counterintuitive for me.



    edit: I posted an answer to the exercise. If anyone wants to comment to see if it sounds right, I would be very glad.










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      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
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      down vote

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      1






      1





      I don't even know where to start in this exercise. Let $E$ be a field extension of $F$. An element $alpha in E$ is algebraic iff $F[alpha] = { f(alpha): f(x) in F[x] }$ is a field. Can anyone give some tips on how to prove it? It seems kind of counterintuitive for me.



      edit: I posted an answer to the exercise. If anyone wants to comment to see if it sounds right, I would be very glad.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I don't even know where to start in this exercise. Let $E$ be a field extension of $F$. An element $alpha in E$ is algebraic iff $F[alpha] = { f(alpha): f(x) in F[x] }$ is a field. Can anyone give some tips on how to prove it? It seems kind of counterintuitive for me.



      edit: I posted an answer to the exercise. If anyone wants to comment to see if it sounds right, I would be very glad.







      polynomials field-theory extension-field






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      edited Nov 25 at 7:47

























      asked Nov 25 at 4:01









      Nuntractatuses Amável

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          3 Answers
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          accepted










          Hint: $F[alpha]$ is a field if and only if $alpha^{-1}in F[alpha]$. Show that the latter is equivalent to $alpha$ is algebraic.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
            – Nuntractatuses Amável
            Nov 25 at 4:50










          • If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
            – Eclipse Sun
            Nov 25 at 16:46


















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          How about this for an answer?
          Suppose that $F[alpha]$ is a field. Then, $alpha^{-1} in F[alpha]$, so there is a polynomial $g(x) in F[x]$ such that $g(alpha) = alpha^{-1}$. Then we have that $alpha g(alpha) = 1$, which implies that $alpha$ satisfies $xg(x) - 1 in F[x]$. So we have that $alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.



          Conversely, let $p(x) in F[x]$ be the minimal polynomial (that is, the unique monic irreducible polynomial) such that $p(alpha) = 0$ and consider the evaluation map $phi: F[x] to E$ defined by $phi (f(x)) = f(alpha)$. Then we have $kerphi = {f(x) in F[x]: f(alpha) = 0} = langle p(x) rangle$. Because $p(x)$ is irreducible, $F[x]/langle p(x) rangle$ is a field and, by the isomorphism theorem, is isomorphic to $phi(F[x]) = {f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$, implying that the latter is a field.



          Does it sound right?






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            The theorem you want to use is Bézout's Lemma:




            If $f, g in F[x]$ are coprime then there exists $lambda, mu in F[x]$ such that $$lambda f + mu g = 1. $$




            Generally speaking, this is the theorem you should look for for finding inverses modulo something. For instance if $f(alpha) = 0$ then this gives



            $$ mu(alpha) g(alpha) = 1. $$



            Or if instead you looked at $F[x]/(f)$ then you get



            $$ mu g equiv 1 pmod f $$



            (These are related ideas.)



            The other direction, Eclipse Sun already hinted at.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
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              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              Hint: $F[alpha]$ is a field if and only if $alpha^{-1}in F[alpha]$. Show that the latter is equivalent to $alpha$ is algebraic.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
                – Nuntractatuses Amável
                Nov 25 at 4:50










              • If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
                – Eclipse Sun
                Nov 25 at 16:46















              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              Hint: $F[alpha]$ is a field if and only if $alpha^{-1}in F[alpha]$. Show that the latter is equivalent to $alpha$ is algebraic.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
                – Nuntractatuses Amável
                Nov 25 at 4:50










              • If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
                – Eclipse Sun
                Nov 25 at 16:46













              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted






              Hint: $F[alpha]$ is a field if and only if $alpha^{-1}in F[alpha]$. Show that the latter is equivalent to $alpha$ is algebraic.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Hint: $F[alpha]$ is a field if and only if $alpha^{-1}in F[alpha]$. Show that the latter is equivalent to $alpha$ is algebraic.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 25 at 4:07









              Eclipse Sun

              6,8371337




              6,8371337












              • Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
                – Nuntractatuses Amável
                Nov 25 at 4:50










              • If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
                – Eclipse Sun
                Nov 25 at 16:46


















              • Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
                – Nuntractatuses Amável
                Nov 25 at 4:50










              • If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
                – Eclipse Sun
                Nov 25 at 16:46
















              Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
              – Nuntractatuses Amável
              Nov 25 at 4:50




              Your answer has helped me to see that if $F[alpha]$ is a field, then $alpha$ is algebraic. But I can't seem to prove the reciprocal.
              – Nuntractatuses Amável
              Nov 25 at 4:50












              If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
              – Eclipse Sun
              Nov 25 at 16:46




              If $alpha$ is algebraic, write down its minimal polynomial, which has nonzero constant term. Can you find what is $alpha^{-1}$ from this?
              – Eclipse Sun
              Nov 25 at 16:46










              up vote
              3
              down vote













              How about this for an answer?
              Suppose that $F[alpha]$ is a field. Then, $alpha^{-1} in F[alpha]$, so there is a polynomial $g(x) in F[x]$ such that $g(alpha) = alpha^{-1}$. Then we have that $alpha g(alpha) = 1$, which implies that $alpha$ satisfies $xg(x) - 1 in F[x]$. So we have that $alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.



              Conversely, let $p(x) in F[x]$ be the minimal polynomial (that is, the unique monic irreducible polynomial) such that $p(alpha) = 0$ and consider the evaluation map $phi: F[x] to E$ defined by $phi (f(x)) = f(alpha)$. Then we have $kerphi = {f(x) in F[x]: f(alpha) = 0} = langle p(x) rangle$. Because $p(x)$ is irreducible, $F[x]/langle p(x) rangle$ is a field and, by the isomorphism theorem, is isomorphic to $phi(F[x]) = {f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$, implying that the latter is a field.



              Does it sound right?






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                How about this for an answer?
                Suppose that $F[alpha]$ is a field. Then, $alpha^{-1} in F[alpha]$, so there is a polynomial $g(x) in F[x]$ such that $g(alpha) = alpha^{-1}$. Then we have that $alpha g(alpha) = 1$, which implies that $alpha$ satisfies $xg(x) - 1 in F[x]$. So we have that $alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.



                Conversely, let $p(x) in F[x]$ be the minimal polynomial (that is, the unique monic irreducible polynomial) such that $p(alpha) = 0$ and consider the evaluation map $phi: F[x] to E$ defined by $phi (f(x)) = f(alpha)$. Then we have $kerphi = {f(x) in F[x]: f(alpha) = 0} = langle p(x) rangle$. Because $p(x)$ is irreducible, $F[x]/langle p(x) rangle$ is a field and, by the isomorphism theorem, is isomorphic to $phi(F[x]) = {f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$, implying that the latter is a field.



                Does it sound right?






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  How about this for an answer?
                  Suppose that $F[alpha]$ is a field. Then, $alpha^{-1} in F[alpha]$, so there is a polynomial $g(x) in F[x]$ such that $g(alpha) = alpha^{-1}$. Then we have that $alpha g(alpha) = 1$, which implies that $alpha$ satisfies $xg(x) - 1 in F[x]$. So we have that $alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.



                  Conversely, let $p(x) in F[x]$ be the minimal polynomial (that is, the unique monic irreducible polynomial) such that $p(alpha) = 0$ and consider the evaluation map $phi: F[x] to E$ defined by $phi (f(x)) = f(alpha)$. Then we have $kerphi = {f(x) in F[x]: f(alpha) = 0} = langle p(x) rangle$. Because $p(x)$ is irreducible, $F[x]/langle p(x) rangle$ is a field and, by the isomorphism theorem, is isomorphic to $phi(F[x]) = {f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$, implying that the latter is a field.



                  Does it sound right?






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  How about this for an answer?
                  Suppose that $F[alpha]$ is a field. Then, $alpha^{-1} in F[alpha]$, so there is a polynomial $g(x) in F[x]$ such that $g(alpha) = alpha^{-1}$. Then we have that $alpha g(alpha) = 1$, which implies that $alpha$ satisfies $xg(x) - 1 in F[x]$. So we have that $alpha$ is algebraic over $F$.



                  Conversely, let $p(x) in F[x]$ be the minimal polynomial (that is, the unique monic irreducible polynomial) such that $p(alpha) = 0$ and consider the evaluation map $phi: F[x] to E$ defined by $phi (f(x)) = f(alpha)$. Then we have $kerphi = {f(x) in F[x]: f(alpha) = 0} = langle p(x) rangle$. Because $p(x)$ is irreducible, $F[x]/langle p(x) rangle$ is a field and, by the isomorphism theorem, is isomorphic to $phi(F[x]) = {f(alpha): f(x) in F[x]}$, implying that the latter is a field.



                  Does it sound right?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 25 at 7:45









                  Nuntractatuses Amável

                  57212




                  57212






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      The theorem you want to use is Bézout's Lemma:




                      If $f, g in F[x]$ are coprime then there exists $lambda, mu in F[x]$ such that $$lambda f + mu g = 1. $$




                      Generally speaking, this is the theorem you should look for for finding inverses modulo something. For instance if $f(alpha) = 0$ then this gives



                      $$ mu(alpha) g(alpha) = 1. $$



                      Or if instead you looked at $F[x]/(f)$ then you get



                      $$ mu g equiv 1 pmod f $$



                      (These are related ideas.)



                      The other direction, Eclipse Sun already hinted at.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        The theorem you want to use is Bézout's Lemma:




                        If $f, g in F[x]$ are coprime then there exists $lambda, mu in F[x]$ such that $$lambda f + mu g = 1. $$




                        Generally speaking, this is the theorem you should look for for finding inverses modulo something. For instance if $f(alpha) = 0$ then this gives



                        $$ mu(alpha) g(alpha) = 1. $$



                        Or if instead you looked at $F[x]/(f)$ then you get



                        $$ mu g equiv 1 pmod f $$



                        (These are related ideas.)



                        The other direction, Eclipse Sun already hinted at.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          The theorem you want to use is Bézout's Lemma:




                          If $f, g in F[x]$ are coprime then there exists $lambda, mu in F[x]$ such that $$lambda f + mu g = 1. $$




                          Generally speaking, this is the theorem you should look for for finding inverses modulo something. For instance if $f(alpha) = 0$ then this gives



                          $$ mu(alpha) g(alpha) = 1. $$



                          Or if instead you looked at $F[x]/(f)$ then you get



                          $$ mu g equiv 1 pmod f $$



                          (These are related ideas.)



                          The other direction, Eclipse Sun already hinted at.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          The theorem you want to use is Bézout's Lemma:




                          If $f, g in F[x]$ are coprime then there exists $lambda, mu in F[x]$ such that $$lambda f + mu g = 1. $$




                          Generally speaking, this is the theorem you should look for for finding inverses modulo something. For instance if $f(alpha) = 0$ then this gives



                          $$ mu(alpha) g(alpha) = 1. $$



                          Or if instead you looked at $F[x]/(f)$ then you get



                          $$ mu g equiv 1 pmod f $$



                          (These are related ideas.)



                          The other direction, Eclipse Sun already hinted at.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 25 at 5:03









                          Trevor Gunn

                          13.9k32045




                          13.9k32045






























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