Rank of Linear Transformation Preserved












0












$begingroup$



Show that the linear transformation with rank $m$ on $n$-dimensional subspace $V$ can be expressed as the sum of $m$ linear transformations with rank $1$.




Since any linear transformation can be represented as a matrix product, i.e $mathbf x mapsto A mathbf x$, along with the property of rank of the matrices,




A rank-$k$ matrix can be written as the sum of $k$ rank-$1$ matrices.




This follows the conclusion.



The proof above is my attempt, and I think I might miss out something, or just have a proof for special case.



Any thought or suggestion would be appreciated.










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  • $begingroup$
    Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:27










  • $begingroup$
    It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:29










  • $begingroup$
    It is fine if you can use the result directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32
















0












$begingroup$



Show that the linear transformation with rank $m$ on $n$-dimensional subspace $V$ can be expressed as the sum of $m$ linear transformations with rank $1$.




Since any linear transformation can be represented as a matrix product, i.e $mathbf x mapsto A mathbf x$, along with the property of rank of the matrices,




A rank-$k$ matrix can be written as the sum of $k$ rank-$1$ matrices.




This follows the conclusion.



The proof above is my attempt, and I think I might miss out something, or just have a proof for special case.



Any thought or suggestion would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:27










  • $begingroup$
    It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:29










  • $begingroup$
    It is fine if you can use the result directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Show that the linear transformation with rank $m$ on $n$-dimensional subspace $V$ can be expressed as the sum of $m$ linear transformations with rank $1$.




Since any linear transformation can be represented as a matrix product, i.e $mathbf x mapsto A mathbf x$, along with the property of rank of the matrices,




A rank-$k$ matrix can be written as the sum of $k$ rank-$1$ matrices.




This follows the conclusion.



The proof above is my attempt, and I think I might miss out something, or just have a proof for special case.



Any thought or suggestion would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Show that the linear transformation with rank $m$ on $n$-dimensional subspace $V$ can be expressed as the sum of $m$ linear transformations with rank $1$.




Since any linear transformation can be represented as a matrix product, i.e $mathbf x mapsto A mathbf x$, along with the property of rank of the matrices,




A rank-$k$ matrix can be written as the sum of $k$ rank-$1$ matrices.




This follows the conclusion.



The proof above is my attempt, and I think I might miss out something, or just have a proof for special case.



Any thought or suggestion would be appreciated.







linear-algebra proof-verification linear-transformations






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 10 '18 at 13:21









weilam06weilam06

9511




9511












  • $begingroup$
    Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:27










  • $begingroup$
    It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:29










  • $begingroup$
    It is fine if you can use the result directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32


















  • $begingroup$
    Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:27










  • $begingroup$
    It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:29










  • $begingroup$
    It is fine if you can use the result directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 10 '18 at 13:32
















$begingroup$
Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 10 '18 at 13:27




$begingroup$
Where is your proof that any rank $k$ matrix can be written as a sum of $k$ matrices of rank $1$?
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 10 '18 at 13:27












$begingroup$
It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 10 '18 at 13:29




$begingroup$
It is shown in the Wikipedia page for Rank (Linear Algebra). I directly used it.
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 10 '18 at 13:29












$begingroup$
It is fine if you can use the result directly.
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 13:32




$begingroup$
It is fine if you can use the result directly.
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 13:32












$begingroup$
I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 10 '18 at 13:32




$begingroup$
I don't find a proof of that statement on the wikipedia article you mentioned. But yes, when you have a proof for the statement about rank $k$ matrices, then the statement of about rank $k$ linear transformations is an immediate consequence.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 10 '18 at 13:32










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Let me give a direct proof in addition to your approach reducing to the case of matrices. Let $fcolon Vto W$ be a linear map such that $dim(f(V))=m$. Pick a basis $w_1,dots,w_m$ of $f(V)$ and define projections
begin{align*}
pi_j colonquadquad f(V)&longrightarrow f(V), \
sum_i lambda_i w_i &longmapsto lambda_j w_j
end{align*}

for $j=1,dots,m$. Note that $pi_1+cdots+pi_m = operatorname{id}_{f(V)}$.



Hence, defining $f_icolon Vto W$ by $f_i(v)=pi_i(f(v))$ we have
$$
f = f_1+cdots + f_n.
$$

Each $f_i$ is of rank $1$ since $f_i(V) = langle w_irangle$.






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    $begingroup$

    Let me give a direct proof in addition to your approach reducing to the case of matrices. Let $fcolon Vto W$ be a linear map such that $dim(f(V))=m$. Pick a basis $w_1,dots,w_m$ of $f(V)$ and define projections
    begin{align*}
    pi_j colonquadquad f(V)&longrightarrow f(V), \
    sum_i lambda_i w_i &longmapsto lambda_j w_j
    end{align*}

    for $j=1,dots,m$. Note that $pi_1+cdots+pi_m = operatorname{id}_{f(V)}$.



    Hence, defining $f_icolon Vto W$ by $f_i(v)=pi_i(f(v))$ we have
    $$
    f = f_1+cdots + f_n.
    $$

    Each $f_i$ is of rank $1$ since $f_i(V) = langle w_irangle$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      0












      $begingroup$

      Let me give a direct proof in addition to your approach reducing to the case of matrices. Let $fcolon Vto W$ be a linear map such that $dim(f(V))=m$. Pick a basis $w_1,dots,w_m$ of $f(V)$ and define projections
      begin{align*}
      pi_j colonquadquad f(V)&longrightarrow f(V), \
      sum_i lambda_i w_i &longmapsto lambda_j w_j
      end{align*}

      for $j=1,dots,m$. Note that $pi_1+cdots+pi_m = operatorname{id}_{f(V)}$.



      Hence, defining $f_icolon Vto W$ by $f_i(v)=pi_i(f(v))$ we have
      $$
      f = f_1+cdots + f_n.
      $$

      Each $f_i$ is of rank $1$ since $f_i(V) = langle w_irangle$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Let me give a direct proof in addition to your approach reducing to the case of matrices. Let $fcolon Vto W$ be a linear map such that $dim(f(V))=m$. Pick a basis $w_1,dots,w_m$ of $f(V)$ and define projections
        begin{align*}
        pi_j colonquadquad f(V)&longrightarrow f(V), \
        sum_i lambda_i w_i &longmapsto lambda_j w_j
        end{align*}

        for $j=1,dots,m$. Note that $pi_1+cdots+pi_m = operatorname{id}_{f(V)}$.



        Hence, defining $f_icolon Vto W$ by $f_i(v)=pi_i(f(v))$ we have
        $$
        f = f_1+cdots + f_n.
        $$

        Each $f_i$ is of rank $1$ since $f_i(V) = langle w_irangle$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let me give a direct proof in addition to your approach reducing to the case of matrices. Let $fcolon Vto W$ be a linear map such that $dim(f(V))=m$. Pick a basis $w_1,dots,w_m$ of $f(V)$ and define projections
        begin{align*}
        pi_j colonquadquad f(V)&longrightarrow f(V), \
        sum_i lambda_i w_i &longmapsto lambda_j w_j
        end{align*}

        for $j=1,dots,m$. Note that $pi_1+cdots+pi_m = operatorname{id}_{f(V)}$.



        Hence, defining $f_icolon Vto W$ by $f_i(v)=pi_i(f(v))$ we have
        $$
        f = f_1+cdots + f_n.
        $$

        Each $f_i$ is of rank $1$ since $f_i(V) = langle w_irangle$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 10 '18 at 13:39









        ChristophChristoph

        11.9k1642




        11.9k1642






























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