Converse of the projection theorem












5














I am trying to prove the converse of the projection theorem:

If for every $fin H$ there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−f|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−f|$, then $M$ is closed.



Is my proof correct?



Let $p_nin M,n=1,2,ldots,$ be a sequence converging to $gin H$. Then there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−g|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−g|$, so $|p−g|leq |p_n-g|,$ for all $n$. Now as $n$ goes to infinity the RHS goes to zero, so $g=pin M$. Therefore, $M$ contains all its limit points and is closed.










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  • 3




    Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
    – Jochen
    Nov 8 '17 at 9:25
















5














I am trying to prove the converse of the projection theorem:

If for every $fin H$ there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−f|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−f|$, then $M$ is closed.



Is my proof correct?



Let $p_nin M,n=1,2,ldots,$ be a sequence converging to $gin H$. Then there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−g|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−g|$, so $|p−g|leq |p_n-g|,$ for all $n$. Now as $n$ goes to infinity the RHS goes to zero, so $g=pin M$. Therefore, $M$ contains all its limit points and is closed.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
    – Jochen
    Nov 8 '17 at 9:25














5












5








5


0





I am trying to prove the converse of the projection theorem:

If for every $fin H$ there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−f|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−f|$, then $M$ is closed.



Is my proof correct?



Let $p_nin M,n=1,2,ldots,$ be a sequence converging to $gin H$. Then there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−g|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−g|$, so $|p−g|leq |p_n-g|,$ for all $n$. Now as $n$ goes to infinity the RHS goes to zero, so $g=pin M$. Therefore, $M$ contains all its limit points and is closed.










share|cite|improve this question















I am trying to prove the converse of the projection theorem:

If for every $fin H$ there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−f|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−f|$, then $M$ is closed.



Is my proof correct?



Let $p_nin M,n=1,2,ldots,$ be a sequence converging to $gin H$. Then there is a $pin M$ such that $|p−g|=inflimits_{vin M}|v−g|$, so $|p−g|leq |p_n-g|,$ for all $n$. Now as $n$ goes to infinity the RHS goes to zero, so $g=pin M$. Therefore, $M$ contains all its limit points and is closed.







functional-analysis analysis hilbert-spaces






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edited Dec 4 '18 at 15:05









Hanno

2,061425




2,061425










asked Nov 8 '17 at 9:05









RozaTh

190210




190210








  • 3




    Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
    – Jochen
    Nov 8 '17 at 9:25














  • 3




    Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
    – Jochen
    Nov 8 '17 at 9:25








3




3




Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
– Jochen
Nov 8 '17 at 9:25




Your argument is correct (even in more general metric spaces instead of Hilbert space).
– Jochen
Nov 8 '17 at 9:25










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