What am I doing wrong finding the $n$-th derivative of $arcsin(x)$ and its value at $0$?












0














$f(x)=arcsin(x)$



$f'(x)=frac{1}{f^{-1}(x)}$



$f'(arcsin(x))=frac{1}{sin'x}=cos^{-1}x$



$(f^{(n-1)})'(x)=(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}$



It's a complex function: $x$ itself, $cos x$, and $^{-1}$. Let's use the chain rule.



$(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1 cdot -2 cdot cdots cdot (-1-n+1+1))cos^{-1-n+1}x=$



$=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!cdot cos^{-n} x$



$f^{(n)}(0)=cos (frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!$



If $n$ is even, then the cosine turns into zero, and the whole derivative becomes zero.



If $n$ is odd, then



$f^{(2k+1)}(0)=cos (frac{(2k)pi}{2})cdot (2k)!=(-1)^{k}cdot (2k)!$.



The book, however, gives $(1cdot 3cdot cdots cdot (2k-1))^2$ for the odd case.



Do I misunderstand something fundamentally?










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  • Your derivative is incorrect
    – Randall
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:36










  • The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:38












  • $arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
    – Vasya
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:50










  • Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
    – B. Goddard
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:11
















0














$f(x)=arcsin(x)$



$f'(x)=frac{1}{f^{-1}(x)}$



$f'(arcsin(x))=frac{1}{sin'x}=cos^{-1}x$



$(f^{(n-1)})'(x)=(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}$



It's a complex function: $x$ itself, $cos x$, and $^{-1}$. Let's use the chain rule.



$(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1 cdot -2 cdot cdots cdot (-1-n+1+1))cos^{-1-n+1}x=$



$=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!cdot cos^{-n} x$



$f^{(n)}(0)=cos (frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!$



If $n$ is even, then the cosine turns into zero, and the whole derivative becomes zero.



If $n$ is odd, then



$f^{(2k+1)}(0)=cos (frac{(2k)pi}{2})cdot (2k)!=(-1)^{k}cdot (2k)!$.



The book, however, gives $(1cdot 3cdot cdots cdot (2k-1))^2$ for the odd case.



Do I misunderstand something fundamentally?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Your derivative is incorrect
    – Randall
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:36










  • The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:38












  • $arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
    – Vasya
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:50










  • Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
    – B. Goddard
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:11














0












0








0







$f(x)=arcsin(x)$



$f'(x)=frac{1}{f^{-1}(x)}$



$f'(arcsin(x))=frac{1}{sin'x}=cos^{-1}x$



$(f^{(n-1)})'(x)=(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}$



It's a complex function: $x$ itself, $cos x$, and $^{-1}$. Let's use the chain rule.



$(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1 cdot -2 cdot cdots cdot (-1-n+1+1))cos^{-1-n+1}x=$



$=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!cdot cos^{-n} x$



$f^{(n)}(0)=cos (frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!$



If $n$ is even, then the cosine turns into zero, and the whole derivative becomes zero.



If $n$ is odd, then



$f^{(2k+1)}(0)=cos (frac{(2k)pi}{2})cdot (2k)!=(-1)^{k}cdot (2k)!$.



The book, however, gives $(1cdot 3cdot cdots cdot (2k-1))^2$ for the odd case.



Do I misunderstand something fundamentally?










share|cite|improve this question















$f(x)=arcsin(x)$



$f'(x)=frac{1}{f^{-1}(x)}$



$f'(arcsin(x))=frac{1}{sin'x}=cos^{-1}x$



$(f^{(n-1)})'(x)=(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}$



It's a complex function: $x$ itself, $cos x$, and $^{-1}$. Let's use the chain rule.



$(cos^{-1}x)^{(n-1)}=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1 cdot -2 cdot cdots cdot (-1-n+1+1))cos^{-1-n+1}x=$



$=cos (x+frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!cdot cos^{-n} x$



$f^{(n)}(0)=cos (frac{(n-1)pi}{2})cdot (-1)^{n-1}cdot (n-1)!$



If $n$ is even, then the cosine turns into zero, and the whole derivative becomes zero.



If $n$ is odd, then



$f^{(2k+1)}(0)=cos (frac{(2k)pi}{2})cdot (2k)!=(-1)^{k}cdot (2k)!$.



The book, however, gives $(1cdot 3cdot cdots cdot (2k-1))^2$ for the odd case.



Do I misunderstand something fundamentally?







calculus derivatives






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edited Dec 3 '18 at 15:39









Jneven

742320




742320










asked Dec 3 '18 at 15:34









fragileradius

297114




297114












  • Your derivative is incorrect
    – Randall
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:36










  • The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:38












  • $arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
    – Vasya
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:50










  • Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
    – B. Goddard
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:11


















  • Your derivative is incorrect
    – Randall
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:36










  • The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:38












  • $arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
    – Vasya
    Dec 3 '18 at 15:50










  • Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
    – B. Goddard
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:11
















Your derivative is incorrect
– Randall
Dec 3 '18 at 15:36




Your derivative is incorrect
– Randall
Dec 3 '18 at 15:36












The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
– Ethan Bolker
Dec 3 '18 at 15:38






The derivative of $arcsin x$ is $1/sqrt{1-x^2}$.
– Ethan Bolker
Dec 3 '18 at 15:38














$arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
– Vasya
Dec 3 '18 at 15:50




$arcsin x ne frac{1}{sin x}$
– Vasya
Dec 3 '18 at 15:50












Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
– B. Goddard
Dec 3 '18 at 16:11




Likely, the point of the exercise is that, rather than take any derivatives, you find the Maclauren series for $arcsin x$ (by, say, binomial theorem) and then just observe the values of the derivatives at $0$.
– B. Goddard
Dec 3 '18 at 16:11










2 Answers
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You’re using the incorrect formula for the derivative of an inverse function.



You wanted to use



$$(f^{-1}(x))’ = frac{1}{f’(f^{-1}(x))}$$



Without using the formula, all you really need is the Chain Rule.



$$y = arcsin x iff sin y = x$$



$$frac{d}{dx} sin y = frac{d}{dx}x$$



$$frac{du}{dx} = frac{du}{dy}cdotfrac{dy}{dx} implies cos ycdotfrac{dy}{dx} = 1$$



$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{cos y} implies frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2y}}$$



$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-x^2}}$$



Note the positive sign as $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$, which is $big[-frac{pi}{2}, frac{pi}{2}big]$.






share|cite|improve this answer































    1














    Your way to proceed is really not clear, the standard way is as follows



    $$y=arcsin x implies sin y = x implies cos ycdot y'=1 implies y'=frac1{cos y}$$



    and since $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$



    $$cos y= cos (arcsin x)=sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}=sqrt{1-x^2}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      active

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      active

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      2














      You’re using the incorrect formula for the derivative of an inverse function.



      You wanted to use



      $$(f^{-1}(x))’ = frac{1}{f’(f^{-1}(x))}$$



      Without using the formula, all you really need is the Chain Rule.



      $$y = arcsin x iff sin y = x$$



      $$frac{d}{dx} sin y = frac{d}{dx}x$$



      $$frac{du}{dx} = frac{du}{dy}cdotfrac{dy}{dx} implies cos ycdotfrac{dy}{dx} = 1$$



      $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{cos y} implies frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2y}}$$



      $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-x^2}}$$



      Note the positive sign as $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$, which is $big[-frac{pi}{2}, frac{pi}{2}big]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




























        2














        You’re using the incorrect formula for the derivative of an inverse function.



        You wanted to use



        $$(f^{-1}(x))’ = frac{1}{f’(f^{-1}(x))}$$



        Without using the formula, all you really need is the Chain Rule.



        $$y = arcsin x iff sin y = x$$



        $$frac{d}{dx} sin y = frac{d}{dx}x$$



        $$frac{du}{dx} = frac{du}{dy}cdotfrac{dy}{dx} implies cos ycdotfrac{dy}{dx} = 1$$



        $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{cos y} implies frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2y}}$$



        $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-x^2}}$$



        Note the positive sign as $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$, which is $big[-frac{pi}{2}, frac{pi}{2}big]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          2












          2








          2






          You’re using the incorrect formula for the derivative of an inverse function.



          You wanted to use



          $$(f^{-1}(x))’ = frac{1}{f’(f^{-1}(x))}$$



          Without using the formula, all you really need is the Chain Rule.



          $$y = arcsin x iff sin y = x$$



          $$frac{d}{dx} sin y = frac{d}{dx}x$$



          $$frac{du}{dx} = frac{du}{dy}cdotfrac{dy}{dx} implies cos ycdotfrac{dy}{dx} = 1$$



          $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{cos y} implies frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2y}}$$



          $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-x^2}}$$



          Note the positive sign as $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$, which is $big[-frac{pi}{2}, frac{pi}{2}big]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          You’re using the incorrect formula for the derivative of an inverse function.



          You wanted to use



          $$(f^{-1}(x))’ = frac{1}{f’(f^{-1}(x))}$$



          Without using the formula, all you really need is the Chain Rule.



          $$y = arcsin x iff sin y = x$$



          $$frac{d}{dx} sin y = frac{d}{dx}x$$



          $$frac{du}{dx} = frac{du}{dy}cdotfrac{dy}{dx} implies cos ycdotfrac{dy}{dx} = 1$$



          $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{cos y} implies frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2y}}$$



          $$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}} = frac{1}{color{blue}{+}sqrt{1-x^2}}$$



          Note the positive sign as $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$, which is $big[-frac{pi}{2}, frac{pi}{2}big]$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 3 '18 at 16:07

























          answered Dec 3 '18 at 16:00









          KM101

          5,0141423




          5,0141423























              1














              Your way to proceed is really not clear, the standard way is as follows



              $$y=arcsin x implies sin y = x implies cos ycdot y'=1 implies y'=frac1{cos y}$$



              and since $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$



              $$cos y= cos (arcsin x)=sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}=sqrt{1-x^2}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1














                Your way to proceed is really not clear, the standard way is as follows



                $$y=arcsin x implies sin y = x implies cos ycdot y'=1 implies y'=frac1{cos y}$$



                and since $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$



                $$cos y= cos (arcsin x)=sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}=sqrt{1-x^2}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  Your way to proceed is really not clear, the standard way is as follows



                  $$y=arcsin x implies sin y = x implies cos ycdot y'=1 implies y'=frac1{cos y}$$



                  and since $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$



                  $$cos y= cos (arcsin x)=sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}=sqrt{1-x^2}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Your way to proceed is really not clear, the standard way is as follows



                  $$y=arcsin x implies sin y = x implies cos ycdot y'=1 implies y'=frac1{cos y}$$



                  and since $cos y$ is positive in the range of $arcsin x$



                  $$cos y= cos (arcsin x)=sqrt{1-sin^2(arcsin x)}=sqrt{1-x^2}$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 3 '18 at 15:48









                  gimusi

                  1




                  1






























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