Finite integral and limit











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Let $L:mathbb{R} to [0,infty)$ a decreasing function such that



$int_{0}^{infty}x^{n-1}L(x)dx < infty$



Prove that $lim_{x to infty}x^{n}L(x) = 0$



Can anybody help me?










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  • I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
    – Tito Eliatron
    Nov 21 at 23:14

















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Let $L:mathbb{R} to [0,infty)$ a decreasing function such that



$int_{0}^{infty}x^{n-1}L(x)dx < infty$



Prove that $lim_{x to infty}x^{n}L(x) = 0$



Can anybody help me?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
    – Tito Eliatron
    Nov 21 at 23:14















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
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1





Let $L:mathbb{R} to [0,infty)$ a decreasing function such that



$int_{0}^{infty}x^{n-1}L(x)dx < infty$



Prove that $lim_{x to infty}x^{n}L(x) = 0$



Can anybody help me?










share|cite|improve this question















Let $L:mathbb{R} to [0,infty)$ a decreasing function such that



$int_{0}^{infty}x^{n-1}L(x)dx < infty$



Prove that $lim_{x to infty}x^{n}L(x) = 0$



Can anybody help me?







limits improper-integrals






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edited Nov 21 at 23:13

























asked Nov 21 at 22:59









ZAF

3706




3706












  • I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
    – Tito Eliatron
    Nov 21 at 23:14




















  • I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
    – Tito Eliatron
    Nov 21 at 23:14


















I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
– Tito Eliatron
Nov 21 at 23:14






I guess you have to use induction. For $n=1$, convergence of the integral plus decresing of $L$ tells you that $lim_{xtoinfty}L(x)=0$. Maybe you can prove that $exists lim_{xtoinfty} x L(x)ge0$ and by the way of contradiction, this limit cannot be positive nor $+infty$.
– Tito Eliatron
Nov 21 at 23:14












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Suppose $x^{n}L(x)$ does not tend to $0$. Then there is a sequence $x_j$ increasing to $infty$ and a $delta >0$ such that $x_j^{n}L(x_j)geq delta$ for all $j$. We can find a subsequence $(y_k)$ of $(x_j)$ such that $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$. [Use induction for this]. Now $int_0^{infty} x^{n-1} L(x), dxgeq sum_k int_{y_k}^{y_{k+1}} x^{n-1} L(x), dx geq sum_k L(y_{k+1})frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} n geq delta sum_k frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} {ny_{k+1}^{n}} =sum_k frac {1-frac {y_k^{n}} {y_{k+1}^{n}}} n=infty$ because $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$.






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    Suppose $x^{n}L(x)$ does not tend to $0$. Then there is a sequence $x_j$ increasing to $infty$ and a $delta >0$ such that $x_j^{n}L(x_j)geq delta$ for all $j$. We can find a subsequence $(y_k)$ of $(x_j)$ such that $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$. [Use induction for this]. Now $int_0^{infty} x^{n-1} L(x), dxgeq sum_k int_{y_k}^{y_{k+1}} x^{n-1} L(x), dx geq sum_k L(y_{k+1})frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} n geq delta sum_k frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} {ny_{k+1}^{n}} =sum_k frac {1-frac {y_k^{n}} {y_{k+1}^{n}}} n=infty$ because $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$.






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      up vote
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      Suppose $x^{n}L(x)$ does not tend to $0$. Then there is a sequence $x_j$ increasing to $infty$ and a $delta >0$ such that $x_j^{n}L(x_j)geq delta$ for all $j$. We can find a subsequence $(y_k)$ of $(x_j)$ such that $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$. [Use induction for this]. Now $int_0^{infty} x^{n-1} L(x), dxgeq sum_k int_{y_k}^{y_{k+1}} x^{n-1} L(x), dx geq sum_k L(y_{k+1})frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} n geq delta sum_k frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} {ny_{k+1}^{n}} =sum_k frac {1-frac {y_k^{n}} {y_{k+1}^{n}}} n=infty$ because $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
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        up vote
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        Suppose $x^{n}L(x)$ does not tend to $0$. Then there is a sequence $x_j$ increasing to $infty$ and a $delta >0$ such that $x_j^{n}L(x_j)geq delta$ for all $j$. We can find a subsequence $(y_k)$ of $(x_j)$ such that $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$. [Use induction for this]. Now $int_0^{infty} x^{n-1} L(x), dxgeq sum_k int_{y_k}^{y_{k+1}} x^{n-1} L(x), dx geq sum_k L(y_{k+1})frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} n geq delta sum_k frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} {ny_{k+1}^{n}} =sum_k frac {1-frac {y_k^{n}} {y_{k+1}^{n}}} n=infty$ because $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Suppose $x^{n}L(x)$ does not tend to $0$. Then there is a sequence $x_j$ increasing to $infty$ and a $delta >0$ such that $x_j^{n}L(x_j)geq delta$ for all $j$. We can find a subsequence $(y_k)$ of $(x_j)$ such that $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$. [Use induction for this]. Now $int_0^{infty} x^{n-1} L(x), dxgeq sum_k int_{y_k}^{y_{k+1}} x^{n-1} L(x), dx geq sum_k L(y_{k+1})frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} n geq delta sum_k frac {y_{k+1}^{n}-y_k^{n}} {ny_{k+1}^{n}} =sum_k frac {1-frac {y_k^{n}} {y_{k+1}^{n}}} n=infty$ because $y_{k+1}^{n} >2y_k^{n}$.







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        answered Nov 21 at 23:36









        Kavi Rama Murthy

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