How to convert $1<frac{x}{sin x}frac{sin x}{x}> cos x$?











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How to convert $1<frac{x}{sin x}<frac{1}{cos x}$ to $1>frac{sin x}{x}> cos x$?




This is done in the process of deriving the sine function. This is maybe a simple but important bug in my understanding that needs to be fixed. Thanks in advance










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    If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
    – Daniel Fischer
    Jun 18 '15 at 19:33










  • This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
    – Paul
    Jun 18 '15 at 20:49






  • 2




    @Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
    – Erick Wong
    Jun 21 '15 at 18:00















up vote
0
down vote

favorite













How to convert $1<frac{x}{sin x}<frac{1}{cos x}$ to $1>frac{sin x}{x}> cos x$?




This is done in the process of deriving the sine function. This is maybe a simple but important bug in my understanding that needs to be fixed. Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
    – Daniel Fischer
    Jun 18 '15 at 19:33










  • This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
    – Paul
    Jun 18 '15 at 20:49






  • 2




    @Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
    – Erick Wong
    Jun 21 '15 at 18:00













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












How to convert $1<frac{x}{sin x}<frac{1}{cos x}$ to $1>frac{sin x}{x}> cos x$?




This is done in the process of deriving the sine function. This is maybe a simple but important bug in my understanding that needs to be fixed. Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question
















How to convert $1<frac{x}{sin x}<frac{1}{cos x}$ to $1>frac{sin x}{x}> cos x$?




This is done in the process of deriving the sine function. This is maybe a simple but important bug in my understanding that needs to be fixed. Thanks in advance







calculus real-analysis limits






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 26 at 16:23









Shaun

8,190113577




8,190113577










asked Jun 18 '15 at 19:31









Zedrijn

1448




1448








  • 3




    If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
    – Daniel Fischer
    Jun 18 '15 at 19:33










  • This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
    – Paul
    Jun 18 '15 at 20:49






  • 2




    @Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
    – Erick Wong
    Jun 21 '15 at 18:00














  • 3




    If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
    – Daniel Fischer
    Jun 18 '15 at 19:33










  • This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
    – Paul
    Jun 18 '15 at 20:49






  • 2




    @Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
    – Erick Wong
    Jun 21 '15 at 18:00








3




3




If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
– Daniel Fischer
Jun 18 '15 at 19:33




If $0 < a < b$, then $0 < frac{1}{b} < frac{1}{a}$, for $$frac{1}{a} - frac{1}{b} = frac{b-a}{ab},$$ and by assumption $b-a > 0$ and $ab > 0$.
– Daniel Fischer
Jun 18 '15 at 19:33












This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
– Paul
Jun 18 '15 at 20:49




This means $1<frac{x}{sinx}$ and $frac{x}{sinx}<frac{1}{cosx}$. Now multiplication and division (assuming x, $sinx$ and $cosx$ are all positive) easily makes the first inequality equivalent to $frac{sinx}{x}<1$, which is your first requirement. Similarly for the second inequality.
– Paul
Jun 18 '15 at 20:49




2




2




@Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
– Erick Wong
Jun 21 '15 at 18:00




@Paul But you don't need all of $x, sin x, cos x$ to be positive (they almost certainly aren't in the context of differentiation where $x$ likely approaches $0$ from either side). It's enough for $cos x$ and $sin x/x$ to be positive.
– Erick Wong
Jun 21 '15 at 18:00















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