How to prove the cardinality of a closed interval is equal to the continuum?











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Say we have a closed interval $[a,b]$. How can I prove $|[a,b]|$ equal to $c$, where $c$ is the continuum.



I already proved $|(a,b)| = |(c,d)|$. But I don't know whether it is useful.










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  • Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:16












  • Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:17










  • Find a bijection between the two sets.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:18










  • Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:20

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Say we have a closed interval $[a,b]$. How can I prove $|[a,b]|$ equal to $c$, where $c$ is the continuum.



I already proved $|(a,b)| = |(c,d)|$. But I don't know whether it is useful.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:16












  • Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:17










  • Find a bijection between the two sets.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:18










  • Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:20















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Say we have a closed interval $[a,b]$. How can I prove $|[a,b]|$ equal to $c$, where $c$ is the continuum.



I already proved $|(a,b)| = |(c,d)|$. But I don't know whether it is useful.










share|cite|improve this question















Say we have a closed interval $[a,b]$. How can I prove $|[a,b]|$ equal to $c$, where $c$ is the continuum.



I already proved $|(a,b)| = |(c,d)|$. But I don't know whether it is useful.







elementary-set-theory






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edited Nov 26 at 12:31









Andrés E. Caicedo

64.5k8157245




64.5k8157245










asked Nov 26 at 10:15









user8314628

1767




1767












  • Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:16












  • Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:17










  • Find a bijection between the two sets.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:18










  • Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:20




















  • Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:16












  • Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:17










  • Find a bijection between the two sets.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 10:18










  • Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
    – user8314628
    Nov 26 at 10:20


















Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 26 at 10:16






Show cardinality of $[a,b]=(a,b)cup {a,b}$ and $mathbb{R}$ are same.
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 26 at 10:16














Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
– user8314628
Nov 26 at 10:17




Yea, I think that is what $c$ means. But I don't know how to prove it.
– user8314628
Nov 26 at 10:17












Find a bijection between the two sets.
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 26 at 10:18




Find a bijection between the two sets.
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 26 at 10:18












Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
– user8314628
Nov 26 at 10:20






Oh I get it. $[a,b]$ belongs to $R$, so I can apply the Schroder-Bernstein theorem! $|(a,b)|leq R$. For any $(c,d)$ in $R$, $|(c,d)|leq (a,b)$.
– user8314628
Nov 26 at 10:20












2 Answers
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up vote
0
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accepted










You can also use the fact that: "If $P$ is a non empty perfect set in $mathbb{R}^k$ then $P$ is uncountable". Show $[a,b]$ is a perfect set.



You may also define a mapping as $f:mathbb{R}to[0,1]:::f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{1}{pi}left(dfrac{pi}{2}+arctan(x)right) &xin(0,1)\x &xin{0,1}end{cases}$






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  • What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Nov 26 at 13:07












  • @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 13:29


















up vote
0
down vote













Hint: You only need to find an injection $mathbb R to [a,b]$. Some such injection can be achieved by modifying $tan^{-1}$. (It's also possible to construct one by hand that is piecewise linear.)






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    You can also use the fact that: "If $P$ is a non empty perfect set in $mathbb{R}^k$ then $P$ is uncountable". Show $[a,b]$ is a perfect set.



    You may also define a mapping as $f:mathbb{R}to[0,1]:::f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{1}{pi}left(dfrac{pi}{2}+arctan(x)right) &xin(0,1)\x &xin{0,1}end{cases}$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
      – Andrés E. Caicedo
      Nov 26 at 13:07












    • @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
      – Yadati Kiran
      Nov 26 at 13:29















    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    You can also use the fact that: "If $P$ is a non empty perfect set in $mathbb{R}^k$ then $P$ is uncountable". Show $[a,b]$ is a perfect set.



    You may also define a mapping as $f:mathbb{R}to[0,1]:::f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{1}{pi}left(dfrac{pi}{2}+arctan(x)right) &xin(0,1)\x &xin{0,1}end{cases}$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
      – Andrés E. Caicedo
      Nov 26 at 13:07












    • @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
      – Yadati Kiran
      Nov 26 at 13:29













    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted






    You can also use the fact that: "If $P$ is a non empty perfect set in $mathbb{R}^k$ then $P$ is uncountable". Show $[a,b]$ is a perfect set.



    You may also define a mapping as $f:mathbb{R}to[0,1]:::f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{1}{pi}left(dfrac{pi}{2}+arctan(x)right) &xin(0,1)\x &xin{0,1}end{cases}$






    share|cite|improve this answer














    You can also use the fact that: "If $P$ is a non empty perfect set in $mathbb{R}^k$ then $P$ is uncountable". Show $[a,b]$ is a perfect set.



    You may also define a mapping as $f:mathbb{R}to[0,1]:::f(x)=begin{cases}dfrac{1}{pi}left(dfrac{pi}{2}+arctan(x)right) &xin(0,1)\x &xin{0,1}end{cases}$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 26 at 10:32

























    answered Nov 26 at 10:23









    Yadati Kiran

    1,253417




    1,253417












    • What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
      – Andrés E. Caicedo
      Nov 26 at 13:07












    • @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
      – Yadati Kiran
      Nov 26 at 13:29


















    • What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
      – Andrés E. Caicedo
      Nov 26 at 13:07












    • @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
      – Yadati Kiran
      Nov 26 at 13:29
















    What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Nov 26 at 13:07






    What you wrote in the first paragraph is not enough. You do not simply want to show that intervals are uncountable, as there are many different uncountable cardinalities.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Nov 26 at 13:07














    @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 13:29




    @AndrésE.Caicedo: Yes I agree.
    – Yadati Kiran
    Nov 26 at 13:29










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Hint: You only need to find an injection $mathbb R to [a,b]$. Some such injection can be achieved by modifying $tan^{-1}$. (It's also possible to construct one by hand that is piecewise linear.)






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Hint: You only need to find an injection $mathbb R to [a,b]$. Some such injection can be achieved by modifying $tan^{-1}$. (It's also possible to construct one by hand that is piecewise linear.)






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Hint: You only need to find an injection $mathbb R to [a,b]$. Some such injection can be achieved by modifying $tan^{-1}$. (It's also possible to construct one by hand that is piecewise linear.)






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Hint: You only need to find an injection $mathbb R to [a,b]$. Some such injection can be achieved by modifying $tan^{-1}$. (It's also possible to construct one by hand that is piecewise linear.)







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 26 at 10:20









        Stefan Mesken

        14.4k32046




        14.4k32046






























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