If $f$ complex polynomial such that $f(z) in mathbb{R}$ for all $|z| = 1$, then $f$ is constant.











up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2












Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$

Show that $f$ is constant.



My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
    – CyclotomicField
    Nov 28 at 18:30










  • The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
    – Matematleta
    Nov 28 at 22:33















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2












Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$

Show that $f$ is constant.



My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
    – CyclotomicField
    Nov 28 at 18:30










  • The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
    – Matematleta
    Nov 28 at 22:33













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2






2





Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$

Show that $f$ is constant.



My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$

Show that $f$ is constant.



My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.







complex-analysis polynomials






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 28 at 18:37









Brahadeesh

6,08242360




6,08242360










asked Nov 28 at 16:26









674123173797 - 4

1407




1407












  • Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
    – CyclotomicField
    Nov 28 at 18:30










  • The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
    – Matematleta
    Nov 28 at 22:33


















  • Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
    – CyclotomicField
    Nov 28 at 18:30










  • The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
    – Matematleta
    Nov 28 at 22:33
















Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30




Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30












The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33




The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.



If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.



So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.



Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.





By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    If we set
    $$
    u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
    $$

    then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
    $$
    max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
    quadtext{and}quad
    min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
    $$

    Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)



    Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:



      Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.



      For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number



      $f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$



      The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so



      $Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.



      But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that



      $Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
          – Matematleta
          Nov 28 at 22:28






        • 1




          If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
          – GEdgar
          Nov 28 at 22:33










        • Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
          – Matematleta
          Nov 28 at 22:37












        • Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
          – 674123173797 - 4
          Dec 1 at 22:02











        Your Answer





        StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
        return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
        StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
        StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
        });
        });
        }, "mathjax-editing");

        StackExchange.ready(function() {
        var channelOptions = {
        tags: "".split(" "),
        id: "69"
        };
        initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

        StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
        // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
        if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
        StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
        createEditor();
        });
        }
        else {
        createEditor();
        }
        });

        function createEditor() {
        StackExchange.prepareEditor({
        heartbeatType: 'answer',
        convertImagesToLinks: true,
        noModals: true,
        showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
        reputationToPostImages: 10,
        bindNavPrevention: true,
        postfix: "",
        imageUploader: {
        brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
        contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
        allowUrls: true
        },
        noCode: true, onDemand: true,
        discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
        ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
        });


        }
        });














        draft saved

        draft discarded


















        StackExchange.ready(
        function () {
        StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3017340%2fif-f-complex-polynomial-such-that-fz-in-mathbbr-for-all-z-1-the%23new-answer', 'question_page');
        }
        );

        Post as a guest















        Required, but never shown

























        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted










        Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.



        If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.



        So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.



        Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.





        By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.



          If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.



          So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.



          Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.





          By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted






            Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.



            If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.



            So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.



            Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.





            By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.



            If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.



            So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.



            Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.





            By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 28 at 18:31

























            answered Nov 28 at 18:21









            Brahadeesh

            6,08242360




            6,08242360






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                If we set
                $$
                u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
                $$

                then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
                $$
                max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                quadtext{and}quad
                min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                $$

                Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)



                Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  If we set
                  $$
                  u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
                  $$

                  then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
                  $$
                  max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                  quadtext{and}quad
                  min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                  $$

                  Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)



                  Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    If we set
                    $$
                    u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
                    $$

                    then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
                    $$
                    max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                    quadtext{and}quad
                    min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                    $$

                    Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)



                    Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    If we set
                    $$
                    u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
                    $$

                    then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
                    $$
                    max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                    quadtext{and}quad
                    min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
                    $$

                    Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)



                    Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 28 at 22:25









                    Yiorgos S. Smyrlis

                    62.3k1383162




                    62.3k1383162






















                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:



                        Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.



                        For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number



                        $f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$



                        The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so



                        $Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.



                        But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that



                        $Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer



























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:



                          Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.



                          For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number



                          $f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$



                          The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so



                          $Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.



                          But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that



                          $Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:



                            Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.



                            For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number



                            $f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$



                            The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so



                            $Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.



                            But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that



                            $Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:



                            Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.



                            For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number



                            $f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$



                            The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so



                            $Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.



                            But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that



                            $Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Nov 28 at 22:54

























                            answered Nov 28 at 17:16









                            Matematleta

                            9,8222918




                            9,8222918






















                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote













                                The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:28






                                • 1




                                  If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Nov 28 at 22:33










                                • Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:37












                                • Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                  – 674123173797 - 4
                                  Dec 1 at 22:02















                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote













                                The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:28






                                • 1




                                  If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Nov 28 at 22:33










                                • Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:37












                                • Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                  – 674123173797 - 4
                                  Dec 1 at 22:02













                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote









                                The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.






                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.







                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                edited Dec 1 at 22:36

























                                answered Nov 28 at 22:26









                                GEdgar

                                61.4k267167




                                61.4k267167












                                • Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:28






                                • 1




                                  If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Nov 28 at 22:33










                                • Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:37












                                • Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                  – 674123173797 - 4
                                  Dec 1 at 22:02


















                                • Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:28






                                • 1




                                  If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Nov 28 at 22:33










                                • Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                  – Matematleta
                                  Nov 28 at 22:37












                                • Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                  – 674123173797 - 4
                                  Dec 1 at 22:02
















                                Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                – Matematleta
                                Nov 28 at 22:28




                                Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
                                – Matematleta
                                Nov 28 at 22:28




                                1




                                1




                                If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                – GEdgar
                                Nov 28 at 22:33




                                If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
                                – GEdgar
                                Nov 28 at 22:33












                                Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                – Matematleta
                                Nov 28 at 22:37






                                Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
                                – Matematleta
                                Nov 28 at 22:37














                                Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                – 674123173797 - 4
                                Dec 1 at 22:02




                                Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
                                – 674123173797 - 4
                                Dec 1 at 22:02


















                                draft saved

                                draft discarded




















































                                Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                                • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                But avoid



                                • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                                To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





                                Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


                                Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


                                • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                But avoid



                                • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                                draft saved


                                draft discarded














                                StackExchange.ready(
                                function () {
                                StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3017340%2fif-f-complex-polynomial-such-that-fz-in-mathbbr-for-all-z-1-the%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                                }
                                );

                                Post as a guest















                                Required, but never shown





















































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown

































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown







                                Popular posts from this blog

                                Different font size/position of beamer's navigation symbols template's content depending on regular/plain...

                                Berounka

                                I want to find a topological embedding $f : X rightarrow Y$ and $g: Y rightarrow X$, yet $X$ is not...