Clarification on a probability theory statement












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$begingroup$


In a text I'm reading, it says the following:




Suppose that $(Omega, mathcal{F})$ is a measureable space and that $X_1, dots, X_n: Omega to mathbf{R}$ are $n$ (real-valued) random variables. If $f: mathbf{R}^n to mathbf{R}$ is a measurable function, then $Z = f(X_1, dots, X_n)$ is measurable with respect to the $sigma$-algebra $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$.




I guess my first question is what does it mean for the random variable $Z$ to be measurable with respect to $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$? Does it mean that we are considering $Z(omega) = f(X_1(omega), dots, X_n(omega))$ as a map $Z: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}))$?



If so, in this case I think we can do it in two steps: first, we show that $X: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}^n))$ is measurable, and then we apply the result that $Z = f circ X$, the composition of measurable maps, hence measurable.



That $X$ as defined above (the vector random variable) is measurable is clear. Let $B = B_1 times cdots B_n$, where $B_i in mathcal{B}(mathbf{R})$ for all $i$. Note that
$$
X^{-1}(B) = cap_{i=1}^n X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_1, dots, X_n),
$$

where the membership follows since for each $i$, $X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_i) subset sigma(X_1, dots X_n)$, and latter is closed under intersection. But then now use that the Borels on $mathbf{R}^n$ are generated by these `rectangular' sets, so hence $X$ is measurable. Is this roughly the idea?










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  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Your argument is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 8 '18 at 5:27
















0












$begingroup$


In a text I'm reading, it says the following:




Suppose that $(Omega, mathcal{F})$ is a measureable space and that $X_1, dots, X_n: Omega to mathbf{R}$ are $n$ (real-valued) random variables. If $f: mathbf{R}^n to mathbf{R}$ is a measurable function, then $Z = f(X_1, dots, X_n)$ is measurable with respect to the $sigma$-algebra $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$.




I guess my first question is what does it mean for the random variable $Z$ to be measurable with respect to $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$? Does it mean that we are considering $Z(omega) = f(X_1(omega), dots, X_n(omega))$ as a map $Z: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}))$?



If so, in this case I think we can do it in two steps: first, we show that $X: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}^n))$ is measurable, and then we apply the result that $Z = f circ X$, the composition of measurable maps, hence measurable.



That $X$ as defined above (the vector random variable) is measurable is clear. Let $B = B_1 times cdots B_n$, where $B_i in mathcal{B}(mathbf{R})$ for all $i$. Note that
$$
X^{-1}(B) = cap_{i=1}^n X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_1, dots, X_n),
$$

where the membership follows since for each $i$, $X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_i) subset sigma(X_1, dots X_n)$, and latter is closed under intersection. But then now use that the Borels on $mathbf{R}^n$ are generated by these `rectangular' sets, so hence $X$ is measurable. Is this roughly the idea?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Your argument is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 8 '18 at 5:27














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In a text I'm reading, it says the following:




Suppose that $(Omega, mathcal{F})$ is a measureable space and that $X_1, dots, X_n: Omega to mathbf{R}$ are $n$ (real-valued) random variables. If $f: mathbf{R}^n to mathbf{R}$ is a measurable function, then $Z = f(X_1, dots, X_n)$ is measurable with respect to the $sigma$-algebra $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$.




I guess my first question is what does it mean for the random variable $Z$ to be measurable with respect to $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$? Does it mean that we are considering $Z(omega) = f(X_1(omega), dots, X_n(omega))$ as a map $Z: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}))$?



If so, in this case I think we can do it in two steps: first, we show that $X: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}^n))$ is measurable, and then we apply the result that $Z = f circ X$, the composition of measurable maps, hence measurable.



That $X$ as defined above (the vector random variable) is measurable is clear. Let $B = B_1 times cdots B_n$, where $B_i in mathcal{B}(mathbf{R})$ for all $i$. Note that
$$
X^{-1}(B) = cap_{i=1}^n X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_1, dots, X_n),
$$

where the membership follows since for each $i$, $X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_i) subset sigma(X_1, dots X_n)$, and latter is closed under intersection. But then now use that the Borels on $mathbf{R}^n$ are generated by these `rectangular' sets, so hence $X$ is measurable. Is this roughly the idea?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In a text I'm reading, it says the following:




Suppose that $(Omega, mathcal{F})$ is a measureable space and that $X_1, dots, X_n: Omega to mathbf{R}$ are $n$ (real-valued) random variables. If $f: mathbf{R}^n to mathbf{R}$ is a measurable function, then $Z = f(X_1, dots, X_n)$ is measurable with respect to the $sigma$-algebra $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$.




I guess my first question is what does it mean for the random variable $Z$ to be measurable with respect to $sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)$? Does it mean that we are considering $Z(omega) = f(X_1(omega), dots, X_n(omega))$ as a map $Z: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}))$?



If so, in this case I think we can do it in two steps: first, we show that $X: (Omega, sigma(X_1, dots, X_n)) to (mathbf{R}, mathcal{B}(mathbf{R}^n))$ is measurable, and then we apply the result that $Z = f circ X$, the composition of measurable maps, hence measurable.



That $X$ as defined above (the vector random variable) is measurable is clear. Let $B = B_1 times cdots B_n$, where $B_i in mathcal{B}(mathbf{R})$ for all $i$. Note that
$$
X^{-1}(B) = cap_{i=1}^n X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_1, dots, X_n),
$$

where the membership follows since for each $i$, $X_i^{-1}(B_i) in sigma(X_i) subset sigma(X_1, dots X_n)$, and latter is closed under intersection. But then now use that the Borels on $mathbf{R}^n$ are generated by these `rectangular' sets, so hence $X$ is measurable. Is this roughly the idea?







probability-theory measure-theory






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asked Dec 8 '18 at 1:25









Drew BradyDrew Brady

682315




682315












  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Your argument is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 8 '18 at 5:27


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Your argument is correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 8 '18 at 5:27
















$begingroup$
Yes. Your argument is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 8 '18 at 5:27




$begingroup$
Yes. Your argument is correct.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 8 '18 at 5:27










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