If $R$ is a noncommutative ring such that $exists a,b in R$ s.t. $ab=1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ is infinite...












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  • If a ring element is right-invertible, but not left-invertible, then it has infinitely many right-inverses. [duplicate]

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If $R$ is a noncommutative ring and there exist $a,bin R$ such that $ab=1$ and $baneq 1$, theN $R$ is infinite.




I need some help with this one, been playing around with elementary algebra but am getting nowhere. Thanks in advance










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Dec 8 '18 at 14:41


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This question already has an answer here:




  • If a ring element is right-invertible, but not left-invertible, then it has infinitely many right-inverses. [duplicate]

    1 answer





If $R$ is a noncommutative ring and there exist $a,bin R$ such that $ab=1$ and $baneq 1$, theN $R$ is infinite.




I need some help with this one, been playing around with elementary algebra but am getting nowhere. Thanks in advance










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marked as duplicate by amWhy, Saad, Brahadeesh, rschwieb abstract-algebra
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-1












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-1


1



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If a ring element is right-invertible, but not left-invertible, then it has infinitely many right-inverses. [duplicate]

    1 answer





If $R$ is a noncommutative ring and there exist $a,bin R$ such that $ab=1$ and $baneq 1$, theN $R$ is infinite.




I need some help with this one, been playing around with elementary algebra but am getting nowhere. Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • If a ring element is right-invertible, but not left-invertible, then it has infinitely many right-inverses. [duplicate]

    1 answer





If $R$ is a noncommutative ring and there exist $a,bin R$ such that $ab=1$ and $baneq 1$, theN $R$ is infinite.




I need some help with this one, been playing around with elementary algebra but am getting nowhere. Thanks in advance





This question already has an answer here:




  • If a ring element is right-invertible, but not left-invertible, then it has infinitely many right-inverses. [duplicate]

    1 answer








abstract-algebra ring-theory






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edited Dec 8 '18 at 0:39









Arturo Magidin

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asked Dec 8 '18 at 0:19









Jesus SavesJesus Saves

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marked as duplicate by amWhy, Saad, Brahadeesh, rschwieb abstract-algebra
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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Welcome to MathematicsStackExchange! Thanks for using MathJax. You will enhance your experience when you are able to articulate what avenues of approach have been tried.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    Dec 8 '18 at 0:27










  • $begingroup$
    and please search before asking. Quite often you may find an answer already there.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 8 '18 at 14:42














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Welcome to MathematicsStackExchange! Thanks for using MathJax. You will enhance your experience when you are able to articulate what avenues of approach have been tried.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    Dec 8 '18 at 0:27










  • $begingroup$
    and please search before asking. Quite often you may find an answer already there.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 8 '18 at 14:42








2




2




$begingroup$
Welcome to MathematicsStackExchange! Thanks for using MathJax. You will enhance your experience when you are able to articulate what avenues of approach have been tried.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Dec 8 '18 at 0:27




$begingroup$
Welcome to MathematicsStackExchange! Thanks for using MathJax. You will enhance your experience when you are able to articulate what avenues of approach have been tried.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Dec 8 '18 at 0:27












$begingroup$
and please search before asking. Quite often you may find an answer already there.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Dec 8 '18 at 14:42




$begingroup$
and please search before asking. Quite often you may find an answer already there.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Dec 8 '18 at 14:42










2 Answers
2






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Consider $f_a(c)=ca$, it is injective $f_a(c)=f_a(d)$ implies that $ca=da$, we deduce that $(ca)b=(da)b=c(ab)=d(ab)=c=d$. If $R$ is finite, $f$ is bijective, there exists $x$ such that $f(x)=xa=1$, you have $xab=x(ab)=x=(xa)b=b$. Contradiction.






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    $begingroup$

    Suppose $R$ is finite and $ab = 1$. Then in particular $a^n = 1$ for some $n$ or $a^m = 0$ for some $m$ minimal. In the second case, $0 = a^m b = a^{m-1}$, a contradiction by minimality of $m$ so we must be in the first case. In the first case, $b = a^n b = a^{n-1}$ and hence $ba = a^n = 1$.



    By the contrapositive, if $ab = 1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ must be infinite.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Consider $f_a(c)=ca$, it is injective $f_a(c)=f_a(d)$ implies that $ca=da$, we deduce that $(ca)b=(da)b=c(ab)=d(ab)=c=d$. If $R$ is finite, $f$ is bijective, there exists $x$ such that $f(x)=xa=1$, you have $xab=x(ab)=x=(xa)b=b$. Contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        Consider $f_a(c)=ca$, it is injective $f_a(c)=f_a(d)$ implies that $ca=da$, we deduce that $(ca)b=(da)b=c(ab)=d(ab)=c=d$. If $R$ is finite, $f$ is bijective, there exists $x$ such that $f(x)=xa=1$, you have $xab=x(ab)=x=(xa)b=b$. Contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Consider $f_a(c)=ca$, it is injective $f_a(c)=f_a(d)$ implies that $ca=da$, we deduce that $(ca)b=(da)b=c(ab)=d(ab)=c=d$. If $R$ is finite, $f$ is bijective, there exists $x$ such that $f(x)=xa=1$, you have $xab=x(ab)=x=(xa)b=b$. Contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Consider $f_a(c)=ca$, it is injective $f_a(c)=f_a(d)$ implies that $ca=da$, we deduce that $(ca)b=(da)b=c(ab)=d(ab)=c=d$. If $R$ is finite, $f$ is bijective, there exists $x$ such that $f(x)=xa=1$, you have $xab=x(ab)=x=(xa)b=b$. Contradiction.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 8 '18 at 0:41

























          answered Dec 8 '18 at 0:36









          Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

          56.9k11444




          56.9k11444























              1












              $begingroup$

              Suppose $R$ is finite and $ab = 1$. Then in particular $a^n = 1$ for some $n$ or $a^m = 0$ for some $m$ minimal. In the second case, $0 = a^m b = a^{m-1}$, a contradiction by minimality of $m$ so we must be in the first case. In the first case, $b = a^n b = a^{n-1}$ and hence $ba = a^n = 1$.



              By the contrapositive, if $ab = 1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ must be infinite.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Suppose $R$ is finite and $ab = 1$. Then in particular $a^n = 1$ for some $n$ or $a^m = 0$ for some $m$ minimal. In the second case, $0 = a^m b = a^{m-1}$, a contradiction by minimality of $m$ so we must be in the first case. In the first case, $b = a^n b = a^{n-1}$ and hence $ba = a^n = 1$.



                By the contrapositive, if $ab = 1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ must be infinite.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Suppose $R$ is finite and $ab = 1$. Then in particular $a^n = 1$ for some $n$ or $a^m = 0$ for some $m$ minimal. In the second case, $0 = a^m b = a^{m-1}$, a contradiction by minimality of $m$ so we must be in the first case. In the first case, $b = a^n b = a^{n-1}$ and hence $ba = a^n = 1$.



                  By the contrapositive, if $ab = 1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ must be infinite.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Suppose $R$ is finite and $ab = 1$. Then in particular $a^n = 1$ for some $n$ or $a^m = 0$ for some $m$ minimal. In the second case, $0 = a^m b = a^{m-1}$, a contradiction by minimality of $m$ so we must be in the first case. In the first case, $b = a^n b = a^{n-1}$ and hence $ba = a^n = 1$.



                  By the contrapositive, if $ab = 1$ and $ba neq 1$ then $R$ must be infinite.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 8 '18 at 0:32









                  ODFODF

                  1,431510




                  1,431510















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