How to compute the directional derivative of a vector field?
Suppose we are given a vector field $vec{a}$ such that
$$vec{a}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=sum_{i=1}^{k}f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)vec{e_i} $$
where
$$mathbf{S}={vec{e_1},ldots,vec{e_k}}$$
is some constant, orthonormal basis of $Bbb{R}^k$.
What follows is to be taken with a cellar of salt. To compute the directional derivative, we start with the gradient. Its components are given by the matrix $mathbf{G}$:
$$mathbf{G}=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1} & cdots &frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}\ vdots & ddots & vdots\frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}&cdots&frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
The gradient $vec{nabla}vec{a}$ itself is given by the double sum
$$vec{nabla}vec{a}=sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
When dealing with scalar-valued functions, the derivative in the direction of some vector $vec{u}$ would be the projection of the gradient onto $vec{u}$.
Assuming this still holds, the directional derivative $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ of $vec{a}$ is
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=vec{nabla}vec{a}cdotfrac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}.$$
Substituting in our double sum:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
Question: Is this generalisation for $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ true?
- If so, how does one evaluate it?
- If not, what is the proper way to find a directional derivative of a vector field?
Appendix
The sign $otimes$ denotes the tensor product. Here, we have the tensor product of basis vectors.
Furthermore, following dyadics on Wikipidia, it seems for an orthonormal basis $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}mathbf{G}.$$ So if $vec{u}=vec{e_m}$, then $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=vec{e_m}mathbf{G}.$$ This makes no sense, unless it is some kind of tensor contraction... In such a case, $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{i1}\ vdots \ sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{in}end{bmatrix}.$$
Here $e_i$ denotes the $i^{th}$ component of $vec{e_m}$; $G_{ij}$ denotes the $ij^{th}$ component of $mathbf{G}$. And since we are in an orthonormal basis, only $e_m=1neq0$:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}e_mG_{m1}\ vdots \ e_mG_{mn}end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}G_{m1}\ vdots \ G_{mn}end{bmatrix}.$$
This seems to be the $m^{th}$ row of $mathbf{G}$ transposed. And in derivative form,
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}\ vdots \ frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
partial-derivative vector-analysis tensor-products matrix-calculus vector-fields
add a comment |
Suppose we are given a vector field $vec{a}$ such that
$$vec{a}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=sum_{i=1}^{k}f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)vec{e_i} $$
where
$$mathbf{S}={vec{e_1},ldots,vec{e_k}}$$
is some constant, orthonormal basis of $Bbb{R}^k$.
What follows is to be taken with a cellar of salt. To compute the directional derivative, we start with the gradient. Its components are given by the matrix $mathbf{G}$:
$$mathbf{G}=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1} & cdots &frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}\ vdots & ddots & vdots\frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}&cdots&frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
The gradient $vec{nabla}vec{a}$ itself is given by the double sum
$$vec{nabla}vec{a}=sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
When dealing with scalar-valued functions, the derivative in the direction of some vector $vec{u}$ would be the projection of the gradient onto $vec{u}$.
Assuming this still holds, the directional derivative $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ of $vec{a}$ is
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=vec{nabla}vec{a}cdotfrac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}.$$
Substituting in our double sum:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
Question: Is this generalisation for $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ true?
- If so, how does one evaluate it?
- If not, what is the proper way to find a directional derivative of a vector field?
Appendix
The sign $otimes$ denotes the tensor product. Here, we have the tensor product of basis vectors.
Furthermore, following dyadics on Wikipidia, it seems for an orthonormal basis $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}mathbf{G}.$$ So if $vec{u}=vec{e_m}$, then $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=vec{e_m}mathbf{G}.$$ This makes no sense, unless it is some kind of tensor contraction... In such a case, $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{i1}\ vdots \ sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{in}end{bmatrix}.$$
Here $e_i$ denotes the $i^{th}$ component of $vec{e_m}$; $G_{ij}$ denotes the $ij^{th}$ component of $mathbf{G}$. And since we are in an orthonormal basis, only $e_m=1neq0$:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}e_mG_{m1}\ vdots \ e_mG_{mn}end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}G_{m1}\ vdots \ G_{mn}end{bmatrix}.$$
This seems to be the $m^{th}$ row of $mathbf{G}$ transposed. And in derivative form,
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}\ vdots \ frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
partial-derivative vector-analysis tensor-products matrix-calculus vector-fields
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00
add a comment |
Suppose we are given a vector field $vec{a}$ such that
$$vec{a}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=sum_{i=1}^{k}f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)vec{e_i} $$
where
$$mathbf{S}={vec{e_1},ldots,vec{e_k}}$$
is some constant, orthonormal basis of $Bbb{R}^k$.
What follows is to be taken with a cellar of salt. To compute the directional derivative, we start with the gradient. Its components are given by the matrix $mathbf{G}$:
$$mathbf{G}=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1} & cdots &frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}\ vdots & ddots & vdots\frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}&cdots&frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
The gradient $vec{nabla}vec{a}$ itself is given by the double sum
$$vec{nabla}vec{a}=sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
When dealing with scalar-valued functions, the derivative in the direction of some vector $vec{u}$ would be the projection of the gradient onto $vec{u}$.
Assuming this still holds, the directional derivative $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ of $vec{a}$ is
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=vec{nabla}vec{a}cdotfrac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}.$$
Substituting in our double sum:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
Question: Is this generalisation for $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ true?
- If so, how does one evaluate it?
- If not, what is the proper way to find a directional derivative of a vector field?
Appendix
The sign $otimes$ denotes the tensor product. Here, we have the tensor product of basis vectors.
Furthermore, following dyadics on Wikipidia, it seems for an orthonormal basis $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}mathbf{G}.$$ So if $vec{u}=vec{e_m}$, then $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=vec{e_m}mathbf{G}.$$ This makes no sense, unless it is some kind of tensor contraction... In such a case, $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{i1}\ vdots \ sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{in}end{bmatrix}.$$
Here $e_i$ denotes the $i^{th}$ component of $vec{e_m}$; $G_{ij}$ denotes the $ij^{th}$ component of $mathbf{G}$. And since we are in an orthonormal basis, only $e_m=1neq0$:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}e_mG_{m1}\ vdots \ e_mG_{mn}end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}G_{m1}\ vdots \ G_{mn}end{bmatrix}.$$
This seems to be the $m^{th}$ row of $mathbf{G}$ transposed. And in derivative form,
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}\ vdots \ frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
partial-derivative vector-analysis tensor-products matrix-calculus vector-fields
Suppose we are given a vector field $vec{a}$ such that
$$vec{a}(x_1,ldots,x_n)=sum_{i=1}^{k}f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)vec{e_i} $$
where
$$mathbf{S}={vec{e_1},ldots,vec{e_k}}$$
is some constant, orthonormal basis of $Bbb{R}^k$.
What follows is to be taken with a cellar of salt. To compute the directional derivative, we start with the gradient. Its components are given by the matrix $mathbf{G}$:
$$mathbf{G}=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1} & cdots &frac{partial f_1(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}\ vdots & ddots & vdots\frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}&cdots&frac{partial f_k(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
The gradient $vec{nabla}vec{a}$ itself is given by the double sum
$$vec{nabla}vec{a}=sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
When dealing with scalar-valued functions, the derivative in the direction of some vector $vec{u}$ would be the projection of the gradient onto $vec{u}$.
Assuming this still holds, the directional derivative $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ of $vec{a}$ is
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=vec{nabla}vec{a}cdotfrac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}.$$
Substituting in our double sum:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}sum_{i=1}^{k}sum_{j=1}^{n}frac{partial f_i(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_j}vec{e_i}otimesvec{e_j}.$$
Question: Is this generalisation for $mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$ true?
- If so, how does one evaluate it?
- If not, what is the proper way to find a directional derivative of a vector field?
Appendix
The sign $otimes$ denotes the tensor product. Here, we have the tensor product of basis vectors.
Furthermore, following dyadics on Wikipidia, it seems for an orthonormal basis $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})=frac{vec{u}}{|vec{u}|}mathbf{G}.$$ So if $vec{u}=vec{e_m}$, then $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=vec{e_m}mathbf{G}.$$ This makes no sense, unless it is some kind of tensor contraction... In such a case, $$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{i1}\ vdots \ sum_{i=1}^{k}e_iG_{in}end{bmatrix}.$$
Here $e_i$ denotes the $i^{th}$ component of $vec{e_m}$; $G_{ij}$ denotes the $ij^{th}$ component of $mathbf{G}$. And since we are in an orthonormal basis, only $e_m=1neq0$:
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}e_mG_{m1}\ vdots \ e_mG_{mn}end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}G_{m1}\ vdots \ G_{mn}end{bmatrix}.$$
This seems to be the $m^{th}$ row of $mathbf{G}$ transposed. And in derivative form,
$$mathrm{D}_{vec{e_m}}(vec{a})=begin{bmatrix}frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_1}\ vdots \ frac{partial f_m(x_1,ldots,x_n)}{partial x_n}end{bmatrix}.$$
partial-derivative vector-analysis tensor-products matrix-calculus vector-fields
partial-derivative vector-analysis tensor-products matrix-calculus vector-fields
edited Mar 2 at 20:48
Rodrigo de Azevedo
12.8k41855
12.8k41855
asked Oct 19 '16 at 18:47
Linear Christmas
372314
372314
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00
add a comment |
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
To generalize, let's first go back a little and talk about the directional derivative of a scalar-valued function $f(vec{x})$ of a vector variable $vec{x}$ in a general and invariant language. If $vec{d}$ is a direction vector (unit length), then the directional derivative of $f$ at $vec{x} = vec{x}_{0}$ in the direction $vec{d}$ can be defined as follows:
It is the image of the linear transformation ${df over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0})$ acting on the vector $vec{d}$.
Thus, the generalization consists in replacing the scalar funtion $f$ by a vector-valued one, $vec{f}$, and writing down the invariant definition of the derivative
$$
{dvec{f} over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0}).
$$
This derivative is, by definition, a certain linear transformation from (the tangent space at $vec{x}_{0}$ of the domain of $vec{f}$) to (the tangent space at $vec{f}(vec{x}_{0})$ of the range of $vec{f}$).
The specific defining properties of this linear transformation can (and should be at first) stated without resorting to bases or tensor representations, and are described on page 66 of this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=JUoyqlW7PZgC&printsec=frontcover&dq=arnold+ordinary+differential+equations&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjGv_y44OfPAhXDSSYKHXvZCC4Q6AEIHjAA#v=onepage&q=The%20action%20of%20diffeomorphisms&f=false
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
|
show 7 more comments
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1 Answer
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To generalize, let's first go back a little and talk about the directional derivative of a scalar-valued function $f(vec{x})$ of a vector variable $vec{x}$ in a general and invariant language. If $vec{d}$ is a direction vector (unit length), then the directional derivative of $f$ at $vec{x} = vec{x}_{0}$ in the direction $vec{d}$ can be defined as follows:
It is the image of the linear transformation ${df over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0})$ acting on the vector $vec{d}$.
Thus, the generalization consists in replacing the scalar funtion $f$ by a vector-valued one, $vec{f}$, and writing down the invariant definition of the derivative
$$
{dvec{f} over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0}).
$$
This derivative is, by definition, a certain linear transformation from (the tangent space at $vec{x}_{0}$ of the domain of $vec{f}$) to (the tangent space at $vec{f}(vec{x}_{0})$ of the range of $vec{f}$).
The specific defining properties of this linear transformation can (and should be at first) stated without resorting to bases or tensor representations, and are described on page 66 of this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=JUoyqlW7PZgC&printsec=frontcover&dq=arnold+ordinary+differential+equations&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjGv_y44OfPAhXDSSYKHXvZCC4Q6AEIHjAA#v=onepage&q=The%20action%20of%20diffeomorphisms&f=false
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
|
show 7 more comments
To generalize, let's first go back a little and talk about the directional derivative of a scalar-valued function $f(vec{x})$ of a vector variable $vec{x}$ in a general and invariant language. If $vec{d}$ is a direction vector (unit length), then the directional derivative of $f$ at $vec{x} = vec{x}_{0}$ in the direction $vec{d}$ can be defined as follows:
It is the image of the linear transformation ${df over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0})$ acting on the vector $vec{d}$.
Thus, the generalization consists in replacing the scalar funtion $f$ by a vector-valued one, $vec{f}$, and writing down the invariant definition of the derivative
$$
{dvec{f} over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0}).
$$
This derivative is, by definition, a certain linear transformation from (the tangent space at $vec{x}_{0}$ of the domain of $vec{f}$) to (the tangent space at $vec{f}(vec{x}_{0})$ of the range of $vec{f}$).
The specific defining properties of this linear transformation can (and should be at first) stated without resorting to bases or tensor representations, and are described on page 66 of this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=JUoyqlW7PZgC&printsec=frontcover&dq=arnold+ordinary+differential+equations&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjGv_y44OfPAhXDSSYKHXvZCC4Q6AEIHjAA#v=onepage&q=The%20action%20of%20diffeomorphisms&f=false
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
|
show 7 more comments
To generalize, let's first go back a little and talk about the directional derivative of a scalar-valued function $f(vec{x})$ of a vector variable $vec{x}$ in a general and invariant language. If $vec{d}$ is a direction vector (unit length), then the directional derivative of $f$ at $vec{x} = vec{x}_{0}$ in the direction $vec{d}$ can be defined as follows:
It is the image of the linear transformation ${df over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0})$ acting on the vector $vec{d}$.
Thus, the generalization consists in replacing the scalar funtion $f$ by a vector-valued one, $vec{f}$, and writing down the invariant definition of the derivative
$$
{dvec{f} over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0}).
$$
This derivative is, by definition, a certain linear transformation from (the tangent space at $vec{x}_{0}$ of the domain of $vec{f}$) to (the tangent space at $vec{f}(vec{x}_{0})$ of the range of $vec{f}$).
The specific defining properties of this linear transformation can (and should be at first) stated without resorting to bases or tensor representations, and are described on page 66 of this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=JUoyqlW7PZgC&printsec=frontcover&dq=arnold+ordinary+differential+equations&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjGv_y44OfPAhXDSSYKHXvZCC4Q6AEIHjAA#v=onepage&q=The%20action%20of%20diffeomorphisms&f=false
To generalize, let's first go back a little and talk about the directional derivative of a scalar-valued function $f(vec{x})$ of a vector variable $vec{x}$ in a general and invariant language. If $vec{d}$ is a direction vector (unit length), then the directional derivative of $f$ at $vec{x} = vec{x}_{0}$ in the direction $vec{d}$ can be defined as follows:
It is the image of the linear transformation ${df over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0})$ acting on the vector $vec{d}$.
Thus, the generalization consists in replacing the scalar funtion $f$ by a vector-valued one, $vec{f}$, and writing down the invariant definition of the derivative
$$
{dvec{f} over dvec{x}}( vec{x}_{0}).
$$
This derivative is, by definition, a certain linear transformation from (the tangent space at $vec{x}_{0}$ of the domain of $vec{f}$) to (the tangent space at $vec{f}(vec{x}_{0})$ of the range of $vec{f}$).
The specific defining properties of this linear transformation can (and should be at first) stated without resorting to bases or tensor representations, and are described on page 66 of this book: https://books.google.com/books?id=JUoyqlW7PZgC&printsec=frontcover&dq=arnold+ordinary+differential+equations&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjGv_y44OfPAhXDSSYKHXvZCC4Q6AEIHjAA#v=onepage&q=The%20action%20of%20diffeomorphisms&f=false
answered Oct 19 '16 at 20:56
user8960
66536
66536
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
|
show 7 more comments
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Could you give an assessment for the Appendix section?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 15:55
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
Not sure what section you are referring to, and what you mean by assessment.
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 17:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
The OP (here: the original post) has a section titled Appendix. I was wondering whether the last formula makes sense (A). Also, what specifically is wrong with multiplying the gradient of a vector field with a unit vector? (B)
– Linear Christmas
Oct 20 '16 at 18:52
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
(A): see my response to (B).:) (B) Not necessarily anything wrong. The gradient of a vector field is generally a linear transformation. So, we need to be specific about what we mean by "multiplying a vector by a linear transformation". This will determine whether the last formula in your Appendix makes sense. And this presence of sense is most conveniently examined using invariant definitions (i.e., those independent of a specific choice of a coordinate system).
– user8960
Oct 20 '16 at 18:57
1
1
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
Let us continue this discussion in chat.
– user8960
Oct 21 '16 at 18:40
|
show 7 more comments
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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lie_derivative
– user8960
Oct 19 '16 at 18:56
@user8960: Cognisant of the possibility of seeming ignorant... Is that to say the formula I gave is not true, and the correct approach would be the Lie derivative (LD)? Or is the LD in this case equivalent to calculating as postulated? And the LD is a further generalisation for p-order tensor fields? Also, I have the non-rigorous feeling that the equation for $$mathrm{D}_{vec{u}}(vec{a})$$ simplifies quite a bit if $vec{u}$ is one of the vectors $vec{e_i}$. Is this true?
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 19:33
Something else to be sure of: make sure your basis vectors, $hat{e}_i$, are position independent, otherwise their derivatives will have non-trivial contributions.
– Sean Lake
Oct 19 '16 at 21:24
@SeanLake: duly noted. Will edit thread.
– Linear Christmas
Oct 19 '16 at 21:29
Isn't the directional derivative just the product of the Jacobian matrix and the direction vector?
– Rodrigo de Azevedo
Mar 2 at 21:00