X*Z has same distribution of Y*Z? [closed]












0














Suppose I have three r.v.s $X, Y, Z$ such that $X$ and $Y$ are identically distributed.



Can we say that $Xcdot Z$ and $Ycdot Z$ have the same distribution? Can we prove it or disprove it?



Note: $X, Y, Z$ may be continuous r.v. and may be not necessarily be independent.



Thanks a lot in advance!










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost Dec 1 at 11:31


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.


















    0














    Suppose I have three r.v.s $X, Y, Z$ such that $X$ and $Y$ are identically distributed.



    Can we say that $Xcdot Z$ and $Ycdot Z$ have the same distribution? Can we prove it or disprove it?



    Note: $X, Y, Z$ may be continuous r.v. and may be not necessarily be independent.



    Thanks a lot in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question















    closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost Dec 1 at 11:31


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















      0












      0








      0







      Suppose I have three r.v.s $X, Y, Z$ such that $X$ and $Y$ are identically distributed.



      Can we say that $Xcdot Z$ and $Ycdot Z$ have the same distribution? Can we prove it or disprove it?



      Note: $X, Y, Z$ may be continuous r.v. and may be not necessarily be independent.



      Thanks a lot in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose I have three r.v.s $X, Y, Z$ such that $X$ and $Y$ are identically distributed.



      Can we say that $Xcdot Z$ and $Ycdot Z$ have the same distribution? Can we prove it or disprove it?



      Note: $X, Y, Z$ may be continuous r.v. and may be not necessarily be independent.



      Thanks a lot in advance!







      probability-theory






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      share|cite|improve this question




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      edited Dec 5 at 20:54

























      asked Dec 1 at 10:43









      Giulio

      273




      273




      closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost Dec 1 at 11:31


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      closed as off-topic by amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost Dec 1 at 11:31


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, José Carlos Santos, user10354138, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Paul Frost

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3














          Clearly they can have the same distribution, for example if all three are independent. But they do not have to have the same distribution



          For example, let $X=1$ or $-1$ each with probability $frac12$, $Y=-X$ and $Z=X$. All three have the same distribution. Then $XZ=1$ with probability $1$ while $YZ=-1$ with probability $1$, so these are different






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
            – Giulio
            Dec 1 at 10:57












          • If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
            – MPW
            Dec 1 at 11:32










          • @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
            – Henry
            Dec 1 at 17:05


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3














          Clearly they can have the same distribution, for example if all three are independent. But they do not have to have the same distribution



          For example, let $X=1$ or $-1$ each with probability $frac12$, $Y=-X$ and $Z=X$. All three have the same distribution. Then $XZ=1$ with probability $1$ while $YZ=-1$ with probability $1$, so these are different






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
            – Giulio
            Dec 1 at 10:57












          • If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
            – MPW
            Dec 1 at 11:32










          • @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
            – Henry
            Dec 1 at 17:05
















          3














          Clearly they can have the same distribution, for example if all three are independent. But they do not have to have the same distribution



          For example, let $X=1$ or $-1$ each with probability $frac12$, $Y=-X$ and $Z=X$. All three have the same distribution. Then $XZ=1$ with probability $1$ while $YZ=-1$ with probability $1$, so these are different






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
            – Giulio
            Dec 1 at 10:57












          • If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
            – MPW
            Dec 1 at 11:32










          • @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
            – Henry
            Dec 1 at 17:05














          3












          3








          3






          Clearly they can have the same distribution, for example if all three are independent. But they do not have to have the same distribution



          For example, let $X=1$ or $-1$ each with probability $frac12$, $Y=-X$ and $Z=X$. All three have the same distribution. Then $XZ=1$ with probability $1$ while $YZ=-1$ with probability $1$, so these are different






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Clearly they can have the same distribution, for example if all three are independent. But they do not have to have the same distribution



          For example, let $X=1$ or $-1$ each with probability $frac12$, $Y=-X$ and $Z=X$. All three have the same distribution. Then $XZ=1$ with probability $1$ while $YZ=-1$ with probability $1$, so these are different







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 1 at 10:52









          Henry

          98k475160




          98k475160












          • Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
            – Giulio
            Dec 1 at 10:57












          • If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
            – MPW
            Dec 1 at 11:32










          • @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
            – Henry
            Dec 1 at 17:05


















          • Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
            – Giulio
            Dec 1 at 10:57












          • If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
            – MPW
            Dec 1 at 11:32










          • @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
            – Henry
            Dec 1 at 17:05
















          Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
          – Giulio
          Dec 1 at 10:57






          Thanks a lot! It's a clever answer to a question I didn't realise it was so trivial.
          – Giulio
          Dec 1 at 10:57














          If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
          – MPW
          Dec 1 at 11:32




          If they are independent, then they must have the same distribution. Is this what you mean?
          – MPW
          Dec 1 at 11:32












          @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
          – Henry
          Dec 1 at 17:05




          @MPW - yes, though are also other examples where $XZ$ and $YZ$ have the same distribution, such as $X=Y$
          – Henry
          Dec 1 at 17:05



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