$L^1([0,1])$ closed unit ball is not weakly compact
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3
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So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.
My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?
Thanks for the help.
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.
My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?
Thanks for the help.
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology
1
Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.
My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?
Thanks for the help.
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology
So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.
My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$
as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?
Thanks for the help.
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology
real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology
edited Nov 26 at 22:32
Davide Giraudo
124k16150258
124k16150258
asked Nov 26 at 20:33
rubikscube09
1,167717
1,167717
1
Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23
|
show 2 more comments
1
Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23
1
1
Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23
|
show 2 more comments
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:
Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find
$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$
a contradiction.
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.
Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
$$
Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
$$
int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
$$
for continuous $phi$. Hence:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
$$
or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
$$
for all $n$. It follows then that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
$$
By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
$$
$phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
$$
But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:
Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find
$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$
a contradiction.
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:
Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find
$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$
a contradiction.
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:
Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find
$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$
a contradiction.
Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:
Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find
$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$
a contradiction.
answered Nov 26 at 21:38
user159517
4,248930
4,248930
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
add a comment |
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
– rubikscube09
Nov 26 at 21:58
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 27 at 4:05
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.
Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.
edited Nov 27 at 10:05
answered Nov 26 at 22:09
Davide Giraudo
124k16150258
124k16150258
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.
Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
$$
Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
$$
int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
$$
for continuous $phi$. Hence:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
$$
or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
$$
for all $n$. It follows then that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
$$
By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
$$
$phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
$$
But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.
Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
$$
Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
$$
int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
$$
for continuous $phi$. Hence:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
$$
or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
$$
for all $n$. It follows then that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
$$
By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
$$
$phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
$$
But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.
Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
$$
Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
$$
int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
$$
for continuous $phi$. Hence:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
$$
or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
$$
for all $n$. It follows then that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
$$
By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
$$
$phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
$$
But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.
So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.
Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
$$
Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
$$
int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
$$
for continuous $phi$. Hence:
$$
int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
$$
or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
$$
for all $n$. It follows then that:
$$
int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
$$
By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
$$
$phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
$$
lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
$$
But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.
answered Nov 27 at 21:01
rubikscube09
1,167717
1,167717
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Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08
And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10
Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13
If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16
@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23