$L^1([0,1])$ closed unit ball is not weakly compact











up vote
3
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So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.



My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?



Thanks for the help.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
    – user159517
    Nov 26 at 21:08










  • And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:10












  • Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:13












  • If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:16












  • @NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 27 at 3:23

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.



My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?



Thanks for the help.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
    – user159517
    Nov 26 at 21:08










  • And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:10












  • Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:13












  • If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:16












  • @NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 27 at 3:23















up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.



My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?



Thanks for the help.










share|cite|improve this question















So I would like to prove this result by constructing a sequence of functions $u_n$ in $L^1([0,1])$, such that $|u_n|_{L^1}leq 1$ for all $n$, but this subsequence does not have a convergent subsequence.



My idea was to take an approximation to the identity, say, $u_n = nmathbf{1}_{[0,1/n]}$. Taking any continuous function on $phi$ on $[0,1]$, ($phi$ is also $L^{infty}$ as a result), defines a linear functional on $L^1$:
$$
f(u_n) = int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

And taking the limit to infinity, we see that $f(u_n) = phi(0)$. Here is where my argument needs work: "This means that $u_n$ converges weakly to the Delta function, but this is not an element of $L^1$". How can I clarify this? Do I have to use the sequence:
$$
int_0^1 u_nphi mathrm{d}mu
$$

as a sequence in the dual of $C[0,1]$ and show then that $f_n(phi) xrightarrow{w*} phi(0)$ ?



Thanks for the help.







real-analysis functional-analysis measure-theory lp-spaces weak-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 26 at 22:32









Davide Giraudo

124k16150258




124k16150258










asked Nov 26 at 20:33









rubikscube09

1,167717




1,167717








  • 1




    Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
    – user159517
    Nov 26 at 21:08










  • And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:10












  • Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:13












  • If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:16












  • @NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 27 at 3:23
















  • 1




    Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
    – user159517
    Nov 26 at 21:08










  • And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:10












  • Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:13












  • If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 26 at 21:16












  • @NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 27 at 3:23










1




1




Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08




Good question. Note that for weak convergence, you need convergence of the dual pairing of the sequence with all elements of the dual. In other words, you would need to show the claim for all functions $phi in L^infty$, not just for continuous $phi$.
– user159517
Nov 26 at 21:08












And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10






And in fact, you may explicitly construct a function $phi in L^infty$ such that $int u_n phi,dmu$ fails to converge.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:10














Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13






Or do you mean the topology on $L^1$ inherited from the weak-* topology on $C([0,1])^*$? Maybe you should precisely define the topology you mean.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:13














If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16






If the latter, then you need to prove the statement "there does not exist $u in L^1$ such that $int u phi,dmu = phi(0)$ for all $phi in C([0,1])$". For that, consider a sequence like $phi_n(t) = (1-t)^n$. Use dominated convergence to show that $int u phi_n ,dmu to 0$ for any $u$, yet $phi_n(0)=1$.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 26 at 21:16














@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23






@NateEldredge what would that $L^infty$ function be? I assume if I construct such a function then we would not have weak convergence.
– rubikscube09
Nov 27 at 3:23












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote













Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:



Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find



$$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$



a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 26 at 21:58










  • Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 27 at 4:05


















up vote
0
down vote













Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.



    Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
    $$
    int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
    $$

    Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
    $$
    int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
    $$

    for continuous $phi$. Hence:
    $$
    int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
    $$

    or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
    $$
    int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
    $$

    for all $n$. It follows then that:
    $$
    int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
    $$

    By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
    $$
    lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
    $$

    $phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
    $$
    lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
    $$

    But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:



      Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find



      $$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$



      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
        – rubikscube09
        Nov 26 at 21:58










      • Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
        – Nate Eldredge
        Nov 27 at 4:05















      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:



      Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find



      $$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$



      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
        – rubikscube09
        Nov 26 at 21:58










      • Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
        – Nate Eldredge
        Nov 27 at 4:05













      up vote
      0
      down vote










      up vote
      0
      down vote









      Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:



      Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find



      $$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$



      a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Here's an argument that shows that your sequence works:



      Let $u_{n_k}$ be any subsequence of $u_n$. Assume that the weak limit of $u_{n_k}$ exists, denoted by $u$. Then, as $u_{n_k} to 0$ almost everywhere, we have $uequiv 0$, because weak limits and almost sure limits coincide (this can be seen by noting that both weak convergence and almost sure convergence cause convergence in probability of a subsequence). But if we let $phi equiv 1$, we find



      $$ 1 = int_{0}^{1} u_{n_k} phi ~ mathrm{d}mu to int_{0}^{1} u phi ~ mathrm{d}mu = 0, $$



      a contradiction.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 26 at 21:38









      user159517

      4,248930




      4,248930












      • Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
        – rubikscube09
        Nov 26 at 21:58










      • Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
        – Nate Eldredge
        Nov 27 at 4:05


















      • Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
        – rubikscube09
        Nov 26 at 21:58










      • Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
        – Nate Eldredge
        Nov 27 at 4:05
















      Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
      – rubikscube09
      Nov 26 at 21:58




      Thanks for the answer. How would you prove the weak and almost everywhere limits coincide without the language of probability theory?
      – rubikscube09
      Nov 26 at 21:58












      Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
      – Nate Eldredge
      Nov 27 at 4:05




      Make the replacements "almost sure" -> "almost everywhere", and "in probability" -> "in measure".
      – Nate Eldredge
      Nov 27 at 4:05










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Suppose that a subsequence $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ converges weakly in $mathbb L^1$ to some $u$. For all fixed $delta$ and all Borel subset $B$ of $[0,1]$ included in $(delta,1)$, using the definition of weak convergence with the linear functional associated to the indicator function of $B$, we derive that $int_B u=0$ hence for all $N$, $u(x)=0$ for almost every $xin (1/N,1)$. Therefore, the only possible limit for $(u_{n_k})_{kgeqslant 1}$ is $u=0$. But this does not work, for example using the functional $Lcolon fmapsto int f$: $L(u_{n_k})=1$ but $L(u)=0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 27 at 10:05

























          answered Nov 26 at 22:09









          Davide Giraudo

          124k16150258




          124k16150258






















              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted










              So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.



              Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
              $$
              int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
              $$

              Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
              $$
              int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
              $$

              for continuous $phi$. Hence:
              $$
              int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
              $$

              or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
              $$
              int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
              $$

              for all $n$. It follows then that:
              $$
              int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
              $$

              By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
              $$
              lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
              $$

              $phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
              $$
              lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
              $$

              But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted










                So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.



                Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
                $$
                int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
                $$

                Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
                $$
                int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
                $$

                for continuous $phi$. Hence:
                $$
                int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
                $$

                or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
                $$
                int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
                $$

                for all $n$. It follows then that:
                $$
                int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
                $$

                By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
                $$
                lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
                $$

                $phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
                $$
                lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
                $$

                But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.



                  Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
                  $$

                  Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
                  $$

                  for continuous $phi$. Hence:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
                  $$

                  or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
                  $$

                  for all $n$. It follows then that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
                  $$

                  By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
                  $$
                  lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
                  $$

                  $phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
                  $$
                  lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
                  $$

                  But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  So, here is an answer that is inspired by Nate Eldrege's comments.



                  Let $u_n$ be an approximation to the identity. Clearly, $|u_n|_{L^1} leq 1$ for all $n$. Assume now that $u_n$ has a weak subsequential limit, i.e $u_{n_k} rightharpoonup u$ in $L^1$. Then, for any $L^infty[0,1]$ function $phi$ we must have:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_{n_k}phi to int_0^1 u phi
                  $$

                  Moreover, we know by that $u_n$ has the property that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_n phi to phi(0)
                  $$

                  for continuous $phi$. Hence:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 u_{n_k} phi to phi(0) = int_0^1 uphi
                  $$

                  or every $phi$ continuous. Now, we will show that no such $u$ in $L^1$ exists. Take the sequence $phi_n = (1-x)^n$ on $[0,1]$ . Then, we see that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) = 1
                  $$

                  for all $n$. It follows then that:
                  $$
                  int_0^1 uphi_n =phi_n(0) to 1
                  $$

                  By the dominated convergence theorem (bounding $u phi_n$ by $u$, which we assume is $L^1$), we have that:
                  $$
                  lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n
                  $$

                  $phi_n$ converges pointwise to the function $1$ at $0$, and $0$ elsewhere. Hence, we have:
                  $$
                  lim_{n to infty} int_0^1 uphi_{n} = int_0^1 ulim_{n to infty} phi_n = 0
                  $$

                  But we showed above that the limit is $1$. So this cannot happen.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 27 at 21:01









                  rubikscube09

                  1,167717




                  1,167717






























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