Probability of getting out of a circular area











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An airplane is moving (straight) within a circle of radius $R$ with constant speed $V$ for $t$ seconds. It can start at any place within the circle and move in each direction (uniform distributions). What is the probability that it gets out of the circle (as a function of $V$, $t$ and $R$)?










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    Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 1:26















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An airplane is moving (straight) within a circle of radius $R$ with constant speed $V$ for $t$ seconds. It can start at any place within the circle and move in each direction (uniform distributions). What is the probability that it gets out of the circle (as a function of $V$, $t$ and $R$)?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 1:26













up vote
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An airplane is moving (straight) within a circle of radius $R$ with constant speed $V$ for $t$ seconds. It can start at any place within the circle and move in each direction (uniform distributions). What is the probability that it gets out of the circle (as a function of $V$, $t$ and $R$)?










share|cite|improve this question















An airplane is moving (straight) within a circle of radius $R$ with constant speed $V$ for $t$ seconds. It can start at any place within the circle and move in each direction (uniform distributions). What is the probability that it gets out of the circle (as a function of $V$, $t$ and $R$)?







probability geometry circle






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edited Nov 26 at 21:43









David G. Stork

9,28721232




9,28721232










asked Nov 26 at 21:39









baskon1

446




446








  • 1




    Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 1:26














  • 1




    Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 1:26








1




1




Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
– David G. Stork
Nov 27 at 1:26




Won't you please simplify this problem and eliminate irrelevancies by setting $R=1$ and $v t = r$ to clarify that this problem depends solely on a single independent variable ($r$)? The terms $v$ and $t$ are always multiplied together, and the relevant variable is the radius distance from the airplane's starting point.
– David G. Stork
Nov 27 at 1:26










4 Answers
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Denote the center of our circle $A$, the disk bounded by it $D(A, R)$ and the velocity vector by $vec{V}$. We know $|vec{V}| = V$. Finally, denote the event that our plane leaves the circle $L$.



The key observation is that the locus of starting points such that the plane doesn't leave $D$ is congruent for any possible direction: our problem is symmetric with respect to the direction. Therefore, $mathbb{P}[L|vec{V}] = mathbb{P}[L]$, and we can consider the direction fixed.



Let's fix the direction of $vec{V}$ and find this locus. Define $f(x) = x + tvec{V}$ be the function that, given a takeoff point, returns the plane's landing.



Let $D_1 = {x:f(x) in D}$ be the set of points, both inside and outside $O$ such, that the plane starting from there would end up inside $D$. Then $D_1$ is also a disk with radius $R$ and center $f^{-1}(A) = A - tvec{V}$.



Of course, the starting point of the plane must be in $D$, so it must be in $D cap D_1$.



Thus, the probability that our plane leaves $D$ equals the probability that our starting point is in $D cap D_1$.



The probability that a uniformly random point is inside a region is proportional to the area of that region, so we need to find $frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{mathbb{A}(D)}$ where $mathbb{A}$ denotes area.



$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)$ is twice the area of a circular segment.



If $tV > 2R$ the disks don't intersect, and the probability to leave $D$ is 1. Let's assume $tV leq 2R$.



Our central angle is $theta = 2arccos(frac{tV}{2R})$, so $sin(theta) = frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tv}{2R}big)^2}$



Since we have two segments, the total intersection area is



$$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1) = R^2(theta - sintheta)$$



Therefore, the probability that the plane leaves the circle (denote this event $L$) is



$$mathbb{P}[L] = 1 - frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{pi R^2} = 1 - frac{theta - sin(theta)}{pi} =
1 - frac{2arccos(frac{tv}{2R}) - frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tV}{2R}big)^2}}{pi}$$



map






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  • I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:46










  • @DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 26 at 22:52










  • What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 23:56










  • @DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 6:42












  • Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 7:46




















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Let us simplify the problem and reduce it to its core properties. Let the radius of the original "bounding" circle be $1$, and the (linear) flight distance be $vt =r$. Our problem can be characterized entirely by the value of $r$.



If $r>2$, then every airplane escapes the bounding circle, no matter its takeoff point; the probability of escape is thus $P_{r>2} = 1$.



Here is a figure illustrating a more general case for a given $r<1$. If the airplane takeoff point is inside the annulus of inner radius $1-r$, then the airplane will never escape, regardless of its flight direction. That is shown by the white core of the disk. The probability of the plane not escaping is the ratio of the inner (white) disk region divided by the area of the bounding disk, i.e., $P = {pi r^2 over pi 1^2} = r^2$. But of course that is not the final solution. We must calculate the probability that if the airplane's takeoff point is in the pink annulus, that it escapes.



Bounding circle and airplane region



Now look at the more interesting case:



enter image description here



Here $x$ is the distance of the takeoff point from the bounding disk center (in any direction). The airplane will land somewhere along the perimeter of the green disk. The (one-dimensional) length of the purple arc divided by the total circumference of the green disk is the probability the airplane will land outside the bounding disk. This, in turn, depends upon the angle $theta$, as shown.



We use the law of cosines for the dashed triangle, which has sides of known length:



$$1^2 = x^2 + r^2 - 2 x r cos (theta),$$



or



$$theta = arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right).$$



The probability the airplane lands inside the bounding disk is $P = theta/pi$, and thus the probability the airplane lands outside is $1 - theta/pi$.



Now we must integrate all possible values of $x$, as:



$$intlimits_{x=1 - 2 r}^1 2 pi x {1 over pi} arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right) dx$$



One then performs this integral, collects terms and simplifies.






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  • 1




    "I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 11:20










  • This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 23:15










  • "One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
    – Oldboy
    Nov 30 at 7:35










  • Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 17:42








  • 1




    @baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 1 at 18:25


















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0
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HINT:



assuming $r=Vt < 2R$, and once starts not changing direction.



pick a point $c$ inside the circle for the plane starting point, draw a circle or radius $r$, find the chord angle $theta$ of the intersections. The probability of the plane getting out of the big circle is $frac{theta}{2pi}$.



In case $r>2R$, there is no intersection, so probability is 1.






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  • The tricky part is performing the integral...
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:15


















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Consider a circle of radius $Vt$ with center r away from the center of the first circle, itself having radius R. The chances Escape is 1 minus the ratio of the area of overlap between the two circles to the area of the second circle.



Let the radius of the circle be R. Let initial distance from center of circle be r. Let u=V=Velocity and t=time. $theta$ is angle of velocity vector with respect to displacement vector from center of circle.



By symmetry, the probability of escape is the same for positions the same distance from the center, so probability is a function of r, $P(r)$.



The final distance from the center is $d^2=r^2+u^2t^2-2rutcos{theta}$ and we have our crossing points at $d=R$.



So: $$cos{theta}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



Solve for the range of $theta$ and divide by $2pi$. This will give you P(r). We can approximate with a Taylor Series:



$$1-frac{theta^2}{2}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



So $Delta theta /2 pi approx frac{1}{pi}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}approx P(r)$



$r$ can take on values uniformly from $r$ to $R$ giving a probability of $frac{2r}{R^2}$.



$$Papproxint_0^Rfrac{2r}{pi R^2}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}dr$$






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  • With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 18:54











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4 Answers
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active

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4 Answers
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active

oldest

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active

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Denote the center of our circle $A$, the disk bounded by it $D(A, R)$ and the velocity vector by $vec{V}$. We know $|vec{V}| = V$. Finally, denote the event that our plane leaves the circle $L$.



The key observation is that the locus of starting points such that the plane doesn't leave $D$ is congruent for any possible direction: our problem is symmetric with respect to the direction. Therefore, $mathbb{P}[L|vec{V}] = mathbb{P}[L]$, and we can consider the direction fixed.



Let's fix the direction of $vec{V}$ and find this locus. Define $f(x) = x + tvec{V}$ be the function that, given a takeoff point, returns the plane's landing.



Let $D_1 = {x:f(x) in D}$ be the set of points, both inside and outside $O$ such, that the plane starting from there would end up inside $D$. Then $D_1$ is also a disk with radius $R$ and center $f^{-1}(A) = A - tvec{V}$.



Of course, the starting point of the plane must be in $D$, so it must be in $D cap D_1$.



Thus, the probability that our plane leaves $D$ equals the probability that our starting point is in $D cap D_1$.



The probability that a uniformly random point is inside a region is proportional to the area of that region, so we need to find $frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{mathbb{A}(D)}$ where $mathbb{A}$ denotes area.



$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)$ is twice the area of a circular segment.



If $tV > 2R$ the disks don't intersect, and the probability to leave $D$ is 1. Let's assume $tV leq 2R$.



Our central angle is $theta = 2arccos(frac{tV}{2R})$, so $sin(theta) = frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tv}{2R}big)^2}$



Since we have two segments, the total intersection area is



$$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1) = R^2(theta - sintheta)$$



Therefore, the probability that the plane leaves the circle (denote this event $L$) is



$$mathbb{P}[L] = 1 - frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{pi R^2} = 1 - frac{theta - sin(theta)}{pi} =
1 - frac{2arccos(frac{tv}{2R}) - frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tV}{2R}big)^2}}{pi}$$



map






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:46










  • @DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 26 at 22:52










  • What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 23:56










  • @DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 6:42












  • Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 7:46

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Denote the center of our circle $A$, the disk bounded by it $D(A, R)$ and the velocity vector by $vec{V}$. We know $|vec{V}| = V$. Finally, denote the event that our plane leaves the circle $L$.



The key observation is that the locus of starting points such that the plane doesn't leave $D$ is congruent for any possible direction: our problem is symmetric with respect to the direction. Therefore, $mathbb{P}[L|vec{V}] = mathbb{P}[L]$, and we can consider the direction fixed.



Let's fix the direction of $vec{V}$ and find this locus. Define $f(x) = x + tvec{V}$ be the function that, given a takeoff point, returns the plane's landing.



Let $D_1 = {x:f(x) in D}$ be the set of points, both inside and outside $O$ such, that the plane starting from there would end up inside $D$. Then $D_1$ is also a disk with radius $R$ and center $f^{-1}(A) = A - tvec{V}$.



Of course, the starting point of the plane must be in $D$, so it must be in $D cap D_1$.



Thus, the probability that our plane leaves $D$ equals the probability that our starting point is in $D cap D_1$.



The probability that a uniformly random point is inside a region is proportional to the area of that region, so we need to find $frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{mathbb{A}(D)}$ where $mathbb{A}$ denotes area.



$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)$ is twice the area of a circular segment.



If $tV > 2R$ the disks don't intersect, and the probability to leave $D$ is 1. Let's assume $tV leq 2R$.



Our central angle is $theta = 2arccos(frac{tV}{2R})$, so $sin(theta) = frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tv}{2R}big)^2}$



Since we have two segments, the total intersection area is



$$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1) = R^2(theta - sintheta)$$



Therefore, the probability that the plane leaves the circle (denote this event $L$) is



$$mathbb{P}[L] = 1 - frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{pi R^2} = 1 - frac{theta - sin(theta)}{pi} =
1 - frac{2arccos(frac{tv}{2R}) - frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tV}{2R}big)^2}}{pi}$$



map






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:46










  • @DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 26 at 22:52










  • What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 23:56










  • @DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 6:42












  • Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 7:46















up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Denote the center of our circle $A$, the disk bounded by it $D(A, R)$ and the velocity vector by $vec{V}$. We know $|vec{V}| = V$. Finally, denote the event that our plane leaves the circle $L$.



The key observation is that the locus of starting points such that the plane doesn't leave $D$ is congruent for any possible direction: our problem is symmetric with respect to the direction. Therefore, $mathbb{P}[L|vec{V}] = mathbb{P}[L]$, and we can consider the direction fixed.



Let's fix the direction of $vec{V}$ and find this locus. Define $f(x) = x + tvec{V}$ be the function that, given a takeoff point, returns the plane's landing.



Let $D_1 = {x:f(x) in D}$ be the set of points, both inside and outside $O$ such, that the plane starting from there would end up inside $D$. Then $D_1$ is also a disk with radius $R$ and center $f^{-1}(A) = A - tvec{V}$.



Of course, the starting point of the plane must be in $D$, so it must be in $D cap D_1$.



Thus, the probability that our plane leaves $D$ equals the probability that our starting point is in $D cap D_1$.



The probability that a uniformly random point is inside a region is proportional to the area of that region, so we need to find $frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{mathbb{A}(D)}$ where $mathbb{A}$ denotes area.



$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)$ is twice the area of a circular segment.



If $tV > 2R$ the disks don't intersect, and the probability to leave $D$ is 1. Let's assume $tV leq 2R$.



Our central angle is $theta = 2arccos(frac{tV}{2R})$, so $sin(theta) = frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tv}{2R}big)^2}$



Since we have two segments, the total intersection area is



$$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1) = R^2(theta - sintheta)$$



Therefore, the probability that the plane leaves the circle (denote this event $L$) is



$$mathbb{P}[L] = 1 - frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{pi R^2} = 1 - frac{theta - sin(theta)}{pi} =
1 - frac{2arccos(frac{tv}{2R}) - frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tV}{2R}big)^2}}{pi}$$



map






share|cite|improve this answer














Denote the center of our circle $A$, the disk bounded by it $D(A, R)$ and the velocity vector by $vec{V}$. We know $|vec{V}| = V$. Finally, denote the event that our plane leaves the circle $L$.



The key observation is that the locus of starting points such that the plane doesn't leave $D$ is congruent for any possible direction: our problem is symmetric with respect to the direction. Therefore, $mathbb{P}[L|vec{V}] = mathbb{P}[L]$, and we can consider the direction fixed.



Let's fix the direction of $vec{V}$ and find this locus. Define $f(x) = x + tvec{V}$ be the function that, given a takeoff point, returns the plane's landing.



Let $D_1 = {x:f(x) in D}$ be the set of points, both inside and outside $O$ such, that the plane starting from there would end up inside $D$. Then $D_1$ is also a disk with radius $R$ and center $f^{-1}(A) = A - tvec{V}$.



Of course, the starting point of the plane must be in $D$, so it must be in $D cap D_1$.



Thus, the probability that our plane leaves $D$ equals the probability that our starting point is in $D cap D_1$.



The probability that a uniformly random point is inside a region is proportional to the area of that region, so we need to find $frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{mathbb{A}(D)}$ where $mathbb{A}$ denotes area.



$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)$ is twice the area of a circular segment.



If $tV > 2R$ the disks don't intersect, and the probability to leave $D$ is 1. Let's assume $tV leq 2R$.



Our central angle is $theta = 2arccos(frac{tV}{2R})$, so $sin(theta) = frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tv}{2R}big)^2}$



Since we have two segments, the total intersection area is



$$mathbb{A}(D cap D_1) = R^2(theta - sintheta)$$



Therefore, the probability that the plane leaves the circle (denote this event $L$) is



$$mathbb{P}[L] = 1 - frac{mathbb{A}(D cap D_1)}{pi R^2} = 1 - frac{theta - sin(theta)}{pi} =
1 - frac{2arccos(frac{tv}{2R}) - frac{tV}{R}sqrt{1 - big(frac{tV}{2R}big)^2}}{pi}$$



map







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 27 at 16:17

























answered Nov 26 at 22:40









Todor Markov

6126




6126












  • I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:46










  • @DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 26 at 22:52










  • What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 23:56










  • @DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 6:42












  • Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 7:46




















  • I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:46










  • @DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 26 at 22:52










  • What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 23:56










  • @DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 6:42












  • Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 27 at 7:46


















I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 22:46




I do not believe this is correct because it assumes (incorrectly) that each candidate separation of circle centers is equally likely, which contradicts the explicit condition that the airplane's starting position can be anywhere in the given circle, with uniform distribution. It is far more likely the airplane will begin closer to the perimeter of the circle than to its center, but the above calculation does not include this fact (as far as I can see).
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 22:46












@DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
– Todor Markov
Nov 26 at 22:52




@DavidG.Stork The distance between circle centers is fixed - $tV$, the total distance traveled, and has nothing to do with place starting point. Therefore, if you start in the intersection and go $tV$ in the x direction, you stay in the circle. Otherwise, if you go $tV$ in the x direction, you end outside the circle. The probability that the plane will begin closer to the perimeter is part of the area calculation, both of the circle, and the segments.
– Todor Markov
Nov 26 at 22:52












What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 23:56




What if you start in the intersection region (area) and then go off at an arbitrary direction?
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 23:56












@DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 6:42






@DavidG.Stork When building the circle, assume a fixed direction. For any fixed direction, you'll get the exact same value $P$. In the end, you can integrate over the distribution of the direction, $mathbb{P}[text{get out}] = int mathbb{P}[text{get out} | V] p(V) dV = int P times p(V) dV = P int p(V) dV = P$.
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 6:42














Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
– David G. Stork
Nov 27 at 7:46






Your "explanation" is confusing, and I think you'll realize that if you plug in your formulas with $R=1$, $vt = 1/3$. See what answer you get, and whether it even makes sense. Even with a fixed direction (offset) your calculation does not properly calculate 1) the probability the flight will emerge from the original circle, and 2) that the original starting point is "uniformly distributed" within the original circle. Also, please use a consistent notation. You use different symbols for probability, "volume" or speed, etc. Fix: "the probability the place [sic] leaves the circle."
– David G. Stork
Nov 27 at 7:46












up vote
5
down vote













Let us simplify the problem and reduce it to its core properties. Let the radius of the original "bounding" circle be $1$, and the (linear) flight distance be $vt =r$. Our problem can be characterized entirely by the value of $r$.



If $r>2$, then every airplane escapes the bounding circle, no matter its takeoff point; the probability of escape is thus $P_{r>2} = 1$.



Here is a figure illustrating a more general case for a given $r<1$. If the airplane takeoff point is inside the annulus of inner radius $1-r$, then the airplane will never escape, regardless of its flight direction. That is shown by the white core of the disk. The probability of the plane not escaping is the ratio of the inner (white) disk region divided by the area of the bounding disk, i.e., $P = {pi r^2 over pi 1^2} = r^2$. But of course that is not the final solution. We must calculate the probability that if the airplane's takeoff point is in the pink annulus, that it escapes.



Bounding circle and airplane region



Now look at the more interesting case:



enter image description here



Here $x$ is the distance of the takeoff point from the bounding disk center (in any direction). The airplane will land somewhere along the perimeter of the green disk. The (one-dimensional) length of the purple arc divided by the total circumference of the green disk is the probability the airplane will land outside the bounding disk. This, in turn, depends upon the angle $theta$, as shown.



We use the law of cosines for the dashed triangle, which has sides of known length:



$$1^2 = x^2 + r^2 - 2 x r cos (theta),$$



or



$$theta = arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right).$$



The probability the airplane lands inside the bounding disk is $P = theta/pi$, and thus the probability the airplane lands outside is $1 - theta/pi$.



Now we must integrate all possible values of $x$, as:



$$intlimits_{x=1 - 2 r}^1 2 pi x {1 over pi} arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right) dx$$



One then performs this integral, collects terms and simplifies.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    "I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 11:20










  • This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 23:15










  • "One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
    – Oldboy
    Nov 30 at 7:35










  • Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 17:42








  • 1




    @baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 1 at 18:25















up vote
5
down vote













Let us simplify the problem and reduce it to its core properties. Let the radius of the original "bounding" circle be $1$, and the (linear) flight distance be $vt =r$. Our problem can be characterized entirely by the value of $r$.



If $r>2$, then every airplane escapes the bounding circle, no matter its takeoff point; the probability of escape is thus $P_{r>2} = 1$.



Here is a figure illustrating a more general case for a given $r<1$. If the airplane takeoff point is inside the annulus of inner radius $1-r$, then the airplane will never escape, regardless of its flight direction. That is shown by the white core of the disk. The probability of the plane not escaping is the ratio of the inner (white) disk region divided by the area of the bounding disk, i.e., $P = {pi r^2 over pi 1^2} = r^2$. But of course that is not the final solution. We must calculate the probability that if the airplane's takeoff point is in the pink annulus, that it escapes.



Bounding circle and airplane region



Now look at the more interesting case:



enter image description here



Here $x$ is the distance of the takeoff point from the bounding disk center (in any direction). The airplane will land somewhere along the perimeter of the green disk. The (one-dimensional) length of the purple arc divided by the total circumference of the green disk is the probability the airplane will land outside the bounding disk. This, in turn, depends upon the angle $theta$, as shown.



We use the law of cosines for the dashed triangle, which has sides of known length:



$$1^2 = x^2 + r^2 - 2 x r cos (theta),$$



or



$$theta = arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right).$$



The probability the airplane lands inside the bounding disk is $P = theta/pi$, and thus the probability the airplane lands outside is $1 - theta/pi$.



Now we must integrate all possible values of $x$, as:



$$intlimits_{x=1 - 2 r}^1 2 pi x {1 over pi} arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right) dx$$



One then performs this integral, collects terms and simplifies.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    "I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 11:20










  • This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 23:15










  • "One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
    – Oldboy
    Nov 30 at 7:35










  • Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 17:42








  • 1




    @baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 1 at 18:25













up vote
5
down vote










up vote
5
down vote









Let us simplify the problem and reduce it to its core properties. Let the radius of the original "bounding" circle be $1$, and the (linear) flight distance be $vt =r$. Our problem can be characterized entirely by the value of $r$.



If $r>2$, then every airplane escapes the bounding circle, no matter its takeoff point; the probability of escape is thus $P_{r>2} = 1$.



Here is a figure illustrating a more general case for a given $r<1$. If the airplane takeoff point is inside the annulus of inner radius $1-r$, then the airplane will never escape, regardless of its flight direction. That is shown by the white core of the disk. The probability of the plane not escaping is the ratio of the inner (white) disk region divided by the area of the bounding disk, i.e., $P = {pi r^2 over pi 1^2} = r^2$. But of course that is not the final solution. We must calculate the probability that if the airplane's takeoff point is in the pink annulus, that it escapes.



Bounding circle and airplane region



Now look at the more interesting case:



enter image description here



Here $x$ is the distance of the takeoff point from the bounding disk center (in any direction). The airplane will land somewhere along the perimeter of the green disk. The (one-dimensional) length of the purple arc divided by the total circumference of the green disk is the probability the airplane will land outside the bounding disk. This, in turn, depends upon the angle $theta$, as shown.



We use the law of cosines for the dashed triangle, which has sides of known length:



$$1^2 = x^2 + r^2 - 2 x r cos (theta),$$



or



$$theta = arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right).$$



The probability the airplane lands inside the bounding disk is $P = theta/pi$, and thus the probability the airplane lands outside is $1 - theta/pi$.



Now we must integrate all possible values of $x$, as:



$$intlimits_{x=1 - 2 r}^1 2 pi x {1 over pi} arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right) dx$$



One then performs this integral, collects terms and simplifies.






share|cite|improve this answer














Let us simplify the problem and reduce it to its core properties. Let the radius of the original "bounding" circle be $1$, and the (linear) flight distance be $vt =r$. Our problem can be characterized entirely by the value of $r$.



If $r>2$, then every airplane escapes the bounding circle, no matter its takeoff point; the probability of escape is thus $P_{r>2} = 1$.



Here is a figure illustrating a more general case for a given $r<1$. If the airplane takeoff point is inside the annulus of inner radius $1-r$, then the airplane will never escape, regardless of its flight direction. That is shown by the white core of the disk. The probability of the plane not escaping is the ratio of the inner (white) disk region divided by the area of the bounding disk, i.e., $P = {pi r^2 over pi 1^2} = r^2$. But of course that is not the final solution. We must calculate the probability that if the airplane's takeoff point is in the pink annulus, that it escapes.



Bounding circle and airplane region



Now look at the more interesting case:



enter image description here



Here $x$ is the distance of the takeoff point from the bounding disk center (in any direction). The airplane will land somewhere along the perimeter of the green disk. The (one-dimensional) length of the purple arc divided by the total circumference of the green disk is the probability the airplane will land outside the bounding disk. This, in turn, depends upon the angle $theta$, as shown.



We use the law of cosines for the dashed triangle, which has sides of known length:



$$1^2 = x^2 + r^2 - 2 x r cos (theta),$$



or



$$theta = arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right).$$



The probability the airplane lands inside the bounding disk is $P = theta/pi$, and thus the probability the airplane lands outside is $1 - theta/pi$.



Now we must integrate all possible values of $x$, as:



$$intlimits_{x=1 - 2 r}^1 2 pi x {1 over pi} arccos left( {x^2 + r^2 - 1 over 2 x r} right) dx$$



One then performs this integral, collects terms and simplifies.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 1 at 18:26

























answered Nov 27 at 10:22









David G. Stork

9,28721232




9,28721232








  • 1




    "I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 11:20










  • This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 23:15










  • "One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
    – Oldboy
    Nov 30 at 7:35










  • Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 17:42








  • 1




    @baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 1 at 18:25














  • 1




    "I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 11:20










  • This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
    – Todor Markov
    Nov 27 at 23:15










  • "One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
    – Oldboy
    Nov 30 at 7:35










  • Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 17:42








  • 1




    @baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 1 at 18:25








1




1




"I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 11:20




"I honestly do not see how the other "solutions" here incorporate this fact." Any area calculation automatically incorporates this fact. In fact, this fact follows from an area calculation of infinitesimal strips.
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 11:20












This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 23:15




This integral seems to integrate to an imaginary number for $r=frac{1}{3}$: wolframalpha.com/input/…
– Todor Markov
Nov 27 at 23:15












"One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
– Oldboy
Nov 30 at 7:35




"One then performs this integral"... Solving Riemann hypothesis looks like a much simpler problem :)
– Oldboy
Nov 30 at 7:35












Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
– baskon1
Dec 1 at 17:42






Thank you very much! I am starting to get how this works! How do you get the probability P=θ/(π/2)? Why not θ/π?
– baskon1
Dec 1 at 17:42






1




1




@baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
– David G. Stork
Dec 1 at 18:25




@baskon1: You are correct: It should be $theta/pi$... so changed. Thanks!
– David G. Stork
Dec 1 at 18:25










up vote
0
down vote













HINT:



assuming $r=Vt < 2R$, and once starts not changing direction.



pick a point $c$ inside the circle for the plane starting point, draw a circle or radius $r$, find the chord angle $theta$ of the intersections. The probability of the plane getting out of the big circle is $frac{theta}{2pi}$.



In case $r>2R$, there is no intersection, so probability is 1.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The tricky part is performing the integral...
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:15















up vote
0
down vote













HINT:



assuming $r=Vt < 2R$, and once starts not changing direction.



pick a point $c$ inside the circle for the plane starting point, draw a circle or radius $r$, find the chord angle $theta$ of the intersections. The probability of the plane getting out of the big circle is $frac{theta}{2pi}$.



In case $r>2R$, there is no intersection, so probability is 1.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The tricky part is performing the integral...
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:15













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









HINT:



assuming $r=Vt < 2R$, and once starts not changing direction.



pick a point $c$ inside the circle for the plane starting point, draw a circle or radius $r$, find the chord angle $theta$ of the intersections. The probability of the plane getting out of the big circle is $frac{theta}{2pi}$.



In case $r>2R$, there is no intersection, so probability is 1.






share|cite|improve this answer














HINT:



assuming $r=Vt < 2R$, and once starts not changing direction.



pick a point $c$ inside the circle for the plane starting point, draw a circle or radius $r$, find the chord angle $theta$ of the intersections. The probability of the plane getting out of the big circle is $frac{theta}{2pi}$.



In case $r>2R$, there is no intersection, so probability is 1.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 26 at 22:12

























answered Nov 26 at 22:06









karakfa

1,923811




1,923811












  • The tricky part is performing the integral...
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:15


















  • The tricky part is performing the integral...
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 26 at 22:15
















The tricky part is performing the integral...
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 22:15




The tricky part is performing the integral...
– David G. Stork
Nov 26 at 22:15










up vote
0
down vote













Consider a circle of radius $Vt$ with center r away from the center of the first circle, itself having radius R. The chances Escape is 1 minus the ratio of the area of overlap between the two circles to the area of the second circle.



Let the radius of the circle be R. Let initial distance from center of circle be r. Let u=V=Velocity and t=time. $theta$ is angle of velocity vector with respect to displacement vector from center of circle.



By symmetry, the probability of escape is the same for positions the same distance from the center, so probability is a function of r, $P(r)$.



The final distance from the center is $d^2=r^2+u^2t^2-2rutcos{theta}$ and we have our crossing points at $d=R$.



So: $$cos{theta}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



Solve for the range of $theta$ and divide by $2pi$. This will give you P(r). We can approximate with a Taylor Series:



$$1-frac{theta^2}{2}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



So $Delta theta /2 pi approx frac{1}{pi}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}approx P(r)$



$r$ can take on values uniformly from $r$ to $R$ giving a probability of $frac{2r}{R^2}$.



$$Papproxint_0^Rfrac{2r}{pi R^2}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}dr$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 18:54















up vote
0
down vote













Consider a circle of radius $Vt$ with center r away from the center of the first circle, itself having radius R. The chances Escape is 1 minus the ratio of the area of overlap between the two circles to the area of the second circle.



Let the radius of the circle be R. Let initial distance from center of circle be r. Let u=V=Velocity and t=time. $theta$ is angle of velocity vector with respect to displacement vector from center of circle.



By symmetry, the probability of escape is the same for positions the same distance from the center, so probability is a function of r, $P(r)$.



The final distance from the center is $d^2=r^2+u^2t^2-2rutcos{theta}$ and we have our crossing points at $d=R$.



So: $$cos{theta}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



Solve for the range of $theta$ and divide by $2pi$. This will give you P(r). We can approximate with a Taylor Series:



$$1-frac{theta^2}{2}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



So $Delta theta /2 pi approx frac{1}{pi}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}approx P(r)$



$r$ can take on values uniformly from $r$ to $R$ giving a probability of $frac{2r}{R^2}$.



$$Papproxint_0^Rfrac{2r}{pi R^2}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}dr$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 18:54













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Consider a circle of radius $Vt$ with center r away from the center of the first circle, itself having radius R. The chances Escape is 1 minus the ratio of the area of overlap between the two circles to the area of the second circle.



Let the radius of the circle be R. Let initial distance from center of circle be r. Let u=V=Velocity and t=time. $theta$ is angle of velocity vector with respect to displacement vector from center of circle.



By symmetry, the probability of escape is the same for positions the same distance from the center, so probability is a function of r, $P(r)$.



The final distance from the center is $d^2=r^2+u^2t^2-2rutcos{theta}$ and we have our crossing points at $d=R$.



So: $$cos{theta}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



Solve for the range of $theta$ and divide by $2pi$. This will give you P(r). We can approximate with a Taylor Series:



$$1-frac{theta^2}{2}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



So $Delta theta /2 pi approx frac{1}{pi}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}approx P(r)$



$r$ can take on values uniformly from $r$ to $R$ giving a probability of $frac{2r}{R^2}$.



$$Papproxint_0^Rfrac{2r}{pi R^2}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}dr$$






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Consider a circle of radius $Vt$ with center r away from the center of the first circle, itself having radius R. The chances Escape is 1 minus the ratio of the area of overlap between the two circles to the area of the second circle.



Let the radius of the circle be R. Let initial distance from center of circle be r. Let u=V=Velocity and t=time. $theta$ is angle of velocity vector with respect to displacement vector from center of circle.



By symmetry, the probability of escape is the same for positions the same distance from the center, so probability is a function of r, $P(r)$.



The final distance from the center is $d^2=r^2+u^2t^2-2rutcos{theta}$ and we have our crossing points at $d=R$.



So: $$cos{theta}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



Solve for the range of $theta$ and divide by $2pi$. This will give you P(r). We can approximate with a Taylor Series:



$$1-frac{theta^2}{2}=frac{r^2+u^2t^2-R^2}{2rut}$$



So $Delta theta /2 pi approx frac{1}{pi}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}approx P(r)$



$r$ can take on values uniformly from $r$ to $R$ giving a probability of $frac{2r}{R^2}$.



$$Papproxint_0^Rfrac{2r}{pi R^2}sqrt{frac{R^2-(r-ut)^2}{rut}}dr$$







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share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 27 at 20:34

























answered Nov 27 at 17:18









TurlocTheRed

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818311












  • With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 18:54


















  • With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
    – baskon1
    Dec 1 at 18:54
















With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
– baskon1
Dec 1 at 18:54




With the Taylor approximation of cosine, how much do we lose in accuracy?
– baskon1
Dec 1 at 18:54


















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