Probability of getting 2 or 4 before 3 or 6











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A fair dice is rolled over and over. What is the probability of getting $2$ or $4$ before getting $3$ or $6$ ?



According to this answer, it is 1/2. As there is a probability of $frac{1}{3} $ of $2$ or $4$ appears before $3$ or $6$ . Out of the total options of them both appearing which should be $$ frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{1}{3}+frac{1}{3}} = frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{2}{3}} = frac{1}{2} $$



Is it the correct way to solve?










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  • I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:02










  • @5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:03










  • Why would that be the case?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:06










  • because of the answer in the linked question here.
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:09






  • 1




    @bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 11:03















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












A fair dice is rolled over and over. What is the probability of getting $2$ or $4$ before getting $3$ or $6$ ?



According to this answer, it is 1/2. As there is a probability of $frac{1}{3} $ of $2$ or $4$ appears before $3$ or $6$ . Out of the total options of them both appearing which should be $$ frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{1}{3}+frac{1}{3}} = frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{2}{3}} = frac{1}{2} $$



Is it the correct way to solve?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:02










  • @5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:03










  • Why would that be the case?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:06










  • because of the answer in the linked question here.
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:09






  • 1




    @bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 11:03













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











A fair dice is rolled over and over. What is the probability of getting $2$ or $4$ before getting $3$ or $6$ ?



According to this answer, it is 1/2. As there is a probability of $frac{1}{3} $ of $2$ or $4$ appears before $3$ or $6$ . Out of the total options of them both appearing which should be $$ frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{1}{3}+frac{1}{3}} = frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{2}{3}} = frac{1}{2} $$



Is it the correct way to solve?










share|cite|improve this question















A fair dice is rolled over and over. What is the probability of getting $2$ or $4$ before getting $3$ or $6$ ?



According to this answer, it is 1/2. As there is a probability of $frac{1}{3} $ of $2$ or $4$ appears before $3$ or $6$ . Out of the total options of them both appearing which should be $$ frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{1}{3}+frac{1}{3}} = frac{frac{1}{3}}{frac{2}{3}} = frac{1}{2} $$



Is it the correct way to solve?







probability






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 22 at 11:43









amWhy

191k27223437




191k27223437










asked Nov 22 at 10:00









bm1125

55116




55116












  • I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:02










  • @5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:03










  • Why would that be the case?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:06










  • because of the answer in the linked question here.
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:09






  • 1




    @bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 11:03


















  • I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:02










  • @5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:03










  • Why would that be the case?
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 10:06










  • because of the answer in the linked question here.
    – bm1125
    Nov 22 at 10:09






  • 1




    @bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
    – 5xum
    Nov 22 at 11:03
















I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 10:02




I don't understand the sentence "As there is a probability of $frac13$ of 2 / 4 appears before 3/ 6 ". Why would this be true?
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 10:02












@5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
– bm1125
Nov 22 at 10:03




@5xum the probabiliy of 2 appears before 3 should be 1/6 right?
– bm1125
Nov 22 at 10:03












Why would that be the case?
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 10:06




Why would that be the case?
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 10:06












because of the answer in the linked question here.
– bm1125
Nov 22 at 10:09




because of the answer in the linked question here.
– bm1125
Nov 22 at 10:09




1




1




@bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 11:03




@bm1125 The probability of any number never appearing is $0$. The probability of one number appearing ahead of any other number, by symmetry, must be $frac12$.
– 5xum
Nov 22 at 11:03










2 Answers
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We can ignore any roll that produces a 1 or a 5 since they have no bearing on which of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6 appears first. Each of these four numbers is equally likely to appear first among those four. Since two of the four are a 2 or 4, the probability that a 2 or 4 appears before a 3 or 6 is
$$frac{2}{4} = frac{1}{2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Let $W=frac13$ be the probability of a win (3 or 6), similarly for $L$ as a 2 or 4 and again for $D$ a 1 or 5.



    Then the probability of a loss is the sum given by $L+DL+D^2L+dots$, which is:



    $$frac13+frac13frac13+frac13^2frac13+dots$$
    $$=frac13left(dfrac1{1-frac13}right)$$
    $$=frac12$$






    share|cite|improve this answer























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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






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      active

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      active

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      up vote
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      down vote



      accepted










      We can ignore any roll that produces a 1 or a 5 since they have no bearing on which of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6 appears first. Each of these four numbers is equally likely to appear first among those four. Since two of the four are a 2 or 4, the probability that a 2 or 4 appears before a 3 or 6 is
      $$frac{2}{4} = frac{1}{2}$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        We can ignore any roll that produces a 1 or a 5 since they have no bearing on which of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6 appears first. Each of these four numbers is equally likely to appear first among those four. Since two of the four are a 2 or 4, the probability that a 2 or 4 appears before a 3 or 6 is
        $$frac{2}{4} = frac{1}{2}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          We can ignore any roll that produces a 1 or a 5 since they have no bearing on which of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6 appears first. Each of these four numbers is equally likely to appear first among those four. Since two of the four are a 2 or 4, the probability that a 2 or 4 appears before a 3 or 6 is
          $$frac{2}{4} = frac{1}{2}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          We can ignore any roll that produces a 1 or a 5 since they have no bearing on which of the numbers 2, 3, 4, 6 appears first. Each of these four numbers is equally likely to appear first among those four. Since two of the four are a 2 or 4, the probability that a 2 or 4 appears before a 3 or 6 is
          $$frac{2}{4} = frac{1}{2}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 22 at 11:38









          N. F. Taussig

          42.7k93254




          42.7k93254






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Let $W=frac13$ be the probability of a win (3 or 6), similarly for $L$ as a 2 or 4 and again for $D$ a 1 or 5.



              Then the probability of a loss is the sum given by $L+DL+D^2L+dots$, which is:



              $$frac13+frac13frac13+frac13^2frac13+dots$$
              $$=frac13left(dfrac1{1-frac13}right)$$
              $$=frac12$$






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Let $W=frac13$ be the probability of a win (3 or 6), similarly for $L$ as a 2 or 4 and again for $D$ a 1 or 5.



                Then the probability of a loss is the sum given by $L+DL+D^2L+dots$, which is:



                $$frac13+frac13frac13+frac13^2frac13+dots$$
                $$=frac13left(dfrac1{1-frac13}right)$$
                $$=frac12$$






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  Let $W=frac13$ be the probability of a win (3 or 6), similarly for $L$ as a 2 or 4 and again for $D$ a 1 or 5.



                  Then the probability of a loss is the sum given by $L+DL+D^2L+dots$, which is:



                  $$frac13+frac13frac13+frac13^2frac13+dots$$
                  $$=frac13left(dfrac1{1-frac13}right)$$
                  $$=frac12$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Let $W=frac13$ be the probability of a win (3 or 6), similarly for $L$ as a 2 or 4 and again for $D$ a 1 or 5.



                  Then the probability of a loss is the sum given by $L+DL+D^2L+dots$, which is:



                  $$frac13+frac13frac13+frac13^2frac13+dots$$
                  $$=frac13left(dfrac1{1-frac13}right)$$
                  $$=frac12$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 22 at 12:19

























                  answered Nov 22 at 12:14









                  JonMark Perry

                  11.2k92237




                  11.2k92237






























                       

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