The closed form of $int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$











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What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$



EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.



Supplementary question:



Calculate



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$










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  • 6




    Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jul 16 '14 at 16:34






  • 10




    I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
    – user3002473
    Jul 28 '15 at 17:11








  • 15




    What is so interesting about this integrals ?
    – user90369
    Dec 5 '17 at 12:52








  • 5




    The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
    – omegadot
    Dec 7 '17 at 1:04






  • 5




    @omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
    – user90369
    Dec 7 '17 at 10:04















up vote
81
down vote

favorite
42












What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$



EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.



Supplementary question:



Calculate



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 6




    Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jul 16 '14 at 16:34






  • 10




    I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
    – user3002473
    Jul 28 '15 at 17:11








  • 15




    What is so interesting about this integrals ?
    – user90369
    Dec 5 '17 at 12:52








  • 5




    The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
    – omegadot
    Dec 7 '17 at 1:04






  • 5




    @omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
    – user90369
    Dec 7 '17 at 10:04













up vote
81
down vote

favorite
42









up vote
81
down vote

favorite
42






42





What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$



EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.



Supplementary question:



Calculate



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$










share|cite|improve this question















What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$



EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.



Supplementary question:



Calculate



$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$







calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form






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edited Apr 30 at 8:33









mathreadler

14.6k72160




14.6k72160










asked Jul 16 '14 at 15:33









user 1357113

22.2k875224




22.2k875224








  • 6




    Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jul 16 '14 at 16:34






  • 10




    I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
    – user3002473
    Jul 28 '15 at 17:11








  • 15




    What is so interesting about this integrals ?
    – user90369
    Dec 5 '17 at 12:52








  • 5




    The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
    – omegadot
    Dec 7 '17 at 1:04






  • 5




    @omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
    – user90369
    Dec 7 '17 at 10:04














  • 6




    Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jul 16 '14 at 16:34






  • 10




    I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
    – user3002473
    Jul 28 '15 at 17:11








  • 15




    What is so interesting about this integrals ?
    – user90369
    Dec 5 '17 at 12:52








  • 5




    The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
    – omegadot
    Dec 7 '17 at 1:04






  • 5




    @omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
    – user90369
    Dec 7 '17 at 10:04








6




6




Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34




Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34




10




10




I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11






I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11






15




15




What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52






What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52






5




5




The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04




The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04




5




5




@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04




@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04










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Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.



$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$



Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:



$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$



Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:



$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$



and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$



so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .



The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information



$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$



we get:



$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$






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    Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.



    $$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$



    Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:



    $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$



    Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:



    $$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
    B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
    C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
    c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$



    and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$



    so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .



    The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information



    $$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$



    we get:



    $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
    -text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$






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      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.



      $$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$



      Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:



      $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$



      Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:



      $$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
      B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
      C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
      c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$



      and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$



      so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .



      The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information



      $$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$



      we get:



      $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
      -text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$






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        up vote
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        Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.



        $$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$



        Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:



        $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$



        Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:



        $$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
        B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
        C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
        c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$



        and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$



        so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .



        The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information



        $$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$



        we get:



        $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
        -text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$






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        Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.



        $$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$



        Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:



        $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$



        Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:



        $$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
        B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
        C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
        c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$



        and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$



        so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .



        The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information



        $$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$



        we get:



        $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
        -text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$







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        edited Nov 22 at 9:37

























        answered Nov 16 at 17:46









        user90369

        8,143925




        8,143925

















            protected by Community Jul 24 '17 at 21:23



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