The closed form of $int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$
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What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.
Supplementary question:
Calculate
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form
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show 37 more comments
up vote
81
down vote
favorite
What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.
Supplementary question:
Calculate
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form
6
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
10
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
15
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
5
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
5
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04
|
show 37 more comments
up vote
81
down vote
favorite
up vote
81
down vote
favorite
What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.
Supplementary question:
Calculate
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form
What tools or ways would you propose for getting the closed form of this integral?
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
EDIT: It took a while since I made this post. I'll give a little bounty for the solver of the problem, 500 points bounty.
Supplementary question:
Calculate
$$int_0^{pi/4}frac{log(1-x)log(x)log(1+x) tan^2(x)}{1-xtan^2(x)} dx$$
calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form
calculus real-analysis complex-analysis definite-integrals closed-form
edited Apr 30 at 8:33
mathreadler
14.6k72160
14.6k72160
asked Jul 16 '14 at 15:33
user 1357113
22.2k875224
22.2k875224
6
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
10
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
15
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
5
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
5
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04
|
show 37 more comments
6
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
10
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
15
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
5
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
5
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04
6
6
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
10
10
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
15
15
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
5
5
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
5
5
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04
|
show 37 more comments
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Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.
$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$
Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$
Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:
$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$
and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$
so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .
The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information
$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$
we get:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$
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Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.
$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$
Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$
Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:
$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$
and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$
so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .
The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information
$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$
we get:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$
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up vote
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Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.
$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$
Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$
Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:
$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$
and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$
so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .
The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information
$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$
we get:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$
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Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.
$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$
Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$
Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:
$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$
and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$
so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .
The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information
$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$
we get:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$
Just a few notes for a series development, because a "closed" formula is very unlikely.
$$intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^{n+1} (tan x)^{2k+2} dx$$
Or using $intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x)}{x (1-xtan^2 x)} dx$ it becomes a little more handsomely:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) -sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{1}{n-k+1} intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx$$
Then we have: $$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} x^n (tan x)^{2k} dx = (-1)^k left(frac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1)4^{n+1}} + A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} right) enspace$$ for:
$$A_{n,k} := left(sin frac{pi n}{2}right)frac{n!}{2^{n+1}} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~eta(n-j+1)\
B_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+2}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{odd}}^n left(sin frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} 2^j c_{2k-1,j}~eta(v-j+1)\
C_{n,k} := frac{1}{2^{2n+1}}sumlimits_{~v=0 \ v~text{even}}^n left(cos frac{pi v}{2}right)frac{n!pi^{n-v}2^v}{(n-v)!} sumlimits_{~j=0 \ j~text{odd}}^{2k-1} c_{2k-1,j}~beta(v-j+1)\
c_{n,j} := frac{1}{n!} sumlimits_{v=0}^{n+1} {binom {n+1} v} sumlimits_{l=j}^n begin{bmatrix}{n+1}\{l+1}end{bmatrix}{binom l j}(-v)^{l-j}$$
and the Stirling numbers of the first kind $begin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}$ defined by: $$sumlimits_{k=0}^nbegin{bmatrix}n\kend{bmatrix}x^k:=prodlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}(x+k),$$
so that $ c_{ text{odd},text{even} }=0 $ and $ c_{ text{even},text{odd} }=0$. Some values $,c_{n,j},$ can be seen here .
The needed analytical continuation for Dirichlet eta function $eta(s)$ and Dirichlet beta function $beta(s)$ can be seen in my answer of the question here . With the additional information
$$ sumlimits_{n=0}^inftyfrac{pi^{n+1}}{(n+1) 4^{n+1}}sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1} = \ text{Li}_2left(frac{pi}{4}right) + text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) + left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right)$$
we get:
$$ intlimits_0^{pi/4} frac{ln(1-x) tan^2 x}{1-xtan^2 x} dx = \
-text{Li}_2 left(frac{1}{2} -frac{pi}{8} right) - left(lnleft(frac{1}{2} +frac{pi}{8} right)right)lnleft(1-frac{pi}{4}right) - sumlimits_{n=0}^infty sumlimits_{k=0}^n frac{(-1)^k}{n-k+1}(A_{n,k} - B_{n,k} - C_{n,k} )$$
edited Nov 22 at 9:37
answered Nov 16 at 17:46
user90369
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6
Could you tell what you tried in order we avoid wrong tracks ? Thanks and cheers :)
– Claude Leibovici
Jul 16 '14 at 16:34
10
I highly doubt this has a closed form. For one, the choice of $pi/4$ as an upper limit seems arbitrary, since the integrand has no pole at $pi/4$. As well, integrals that involve $xtan{x}$ or $ln(x)tan{x}$ are hard enough separately (for example even something like $int_0^{pi/4}x^ntan{x}text{d}x$ only has a closed form in terms of an infinite sum of zeta functions). I've messed around with this for about a day, and it seems you either have to eliminate the $ln(1-x)tan^2x$ and the $xtan^2x$ simultaneously (which I've to be found very hard), or deal with messy nested infinite sums.
– user3002473
Jul 28 '15 at 17:11
15
What is so interesting about this integrals ?
– user90369
Dec 5 '17 at 12:52
5
The fact that no one has cracked it in the last three plus years means its very hard to do, and consequently, intrinsically interesting.
– omegadot
Dec 7 '17 at 1:04
5
@omegadot : No, it just means that the probability is very high that there is no closed form. (You can immediately construct endless many integrals without any closed form.) But where does such a problem come ? This could be interesting.
– user90369
Dec 7 '17 at 10:04