Complex Integral Inequality $int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi}$
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Let $$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}z^{k}$$ be a polynomial, where $c_{k}inmathbb{C}$.
Prove that
$$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
I tried letting $c_{k} = a_{k}+ib_{k}$ for real $a_{k},b_{k}$ and got to $$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dx = int_{-1}^{1}left(sum_{k=0}^{n}a^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}+left(sum_{k=0}^{n}b^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}dx$$ but I'm not sure how to go from here.
Am I on the right track (if so can you outline the next few steps?) or should I be approaching this another way?
What I know;
- In the previous part of the question I proved for real $c_{k}$
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$ using the Cauchy Theorem and two integrals around the uppper/lower unit semicircles:
Proof (if helpful) Consider the counter-clockwise contour from traversing the real axis from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, and then a semicircle of radius 1 from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$. By the Cauchy Theorem the integral is $0$ as $f$ is holomorphic everywhere, so splitting the integrals into one along the real axis and one along the arc gives:
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = -int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dtheta$$
Now since $f$ is real valued if $c_{k}inmathbb{R}$, $|f|^{2}geq 0$, so $$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = left|int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxright| = left|-int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dthetaright|leq int_{0}^{pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta$$
Similarly by considering the contour traversing the real axis from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$ and then along the semicircle of radius 1 from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, we get
$$int_{-1}^{1} [f(x)]^{2}dxleq int_{pi}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta $$
Adding the two then gives the equality
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$
- I know how to prove the equality $$piint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
Here is the full question for reference; (note I only need help for the second part)
sequences-and-series complex-analysis inequality complex-numbers integral-inequality
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
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Question
Let $$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}z^{k}$$ be a polynomial, where $c_{k}inmathbb{C}$.
Prove that
$$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
I tried letting $c_{k} = a_{k}+ib_{k}$ for real $a_{k},b_{k}$ and got to $$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dx = int_{-1}^{1}left(sum_{k=0}^{n}a^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}+left(sum_{k=0}^{n}b^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}dx$$ but I'm not sure how to go from here.
Am I on the right track (if so can you outline the next few steps?) or should I be approaching this another way?
What I know;
- In the previous part of the question I proved for real $c_{k}$
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$ using the Cauchy Theorem and two integrals around the uppper/lower unit semicircles:
Proof (if helpful) Consider the counter-clockwise contour from traversing the real axis from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, and then a semicircle of radius 1 from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$. By the Cauchy Theorem the integral is $0$ as $f$ is holomorphic everywhere, so splitting the integrals into one along the real axis and one along the arc gives:
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = -int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dtheta$$
Now since $f$ is real valued if $c_{k}inmathbb{R}$, $|f|^{2}geq 0$, so $$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = left|int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxright| = left|-int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dthetaright|leq int_{0}^{pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta$$
Similarly by considering the contour traversing the real axis from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$ and then along the semicircle of radius 1 from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, we get
$$int_{-1}^{1} [f(x)]^{2}dxleq int_{pi}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta $$
Adding the two then gives the equality
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$
- I know how to prove the equality $$piint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
Here is the full question for reference; (note I only need help for the second part)
sequences-and-series complex-analysis inequality complex-numbers integral-inequality
1
Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
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favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Question
Let $$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}z^{k}$$ be a polynomial, where $c_{k}inmathbb{C}$.
Prove that
$$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
I tried letting $c_{k} = a_{k}+ib_{k}$ for real $a_{k},b_{k}$ and got to $$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dx = int_{-1}^{1}left(sum_{k=0}^{n}a^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}+left(sum_{k=0}^{n}b^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}dx$$ but I'm not sure how to go from here.
Am I on the right track (if so can you outline the next few steps?) or should I be approaching this another way?
What I know;
- In the previous part of the question I proved for real $c_{k}$
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$ using the Cauchy Theorem and two integrals around the uppper/lower unit semicircles:
Proof (if helpful) Consider the counter-clockwise contour from traversing the real axis from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, and then a semicircle of radius 1 from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$. By the Cauchy Theorem the integral is $0$ as $f$ is holomorphic everywhere, so splitting the integrals into one along the real axis and one along the arc gives:
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = -int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dtheta$$
Now since $f$ is real valued if $c_{k}inmathbb{R}$, $|f|^{2}geq 0$, so $$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = left|int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxright| = left|-int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dthetaright|leq int_{0}^{pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta$$
Similarly by considering the contour traversing the real axis from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$ and then along the semicircle of radius 1 from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, we get
$$int_{-1}^{1} [f(x)]^{2}dxleq int_{pi}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta $$
Adding the two then gives the equality
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$
- I know how to prove the equality $$piint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
Here is the full question for reference; (note I only need help for the second part)
sequences-and-series complex-analysis inequality complex-numbers integral-inequality
Question
Let $$f(z) = sum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}z^{k}$$ be a polynomial, where $c_{k}inmathbb{C}$.
Prove that
$$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
I tried letting $c_{k} = a_{k}+ib_{k}$ for real $a_{k},b_{k}$ and got to $$int_{-1}^{1}|f(x)|^{2}dx = int_{-1}^{1}left(sum_{k=0}^{n}a^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}+left(sum_{k=0}^{n}b^{k}x^{k}right)^{2}dx$$ but I'm not sure how to go from here.
Am I on the right track (if so can you outline the next few steps?) or should I be approaching this another way?
What I know;
- In the previous part of the question I proved for real $c_{k}$
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$ using the Cauchy Theorem and two integrals around the uppper/lower unit semicircles:
Proof (if helpful) Consider the counter-clockwise contour from traversing the real axis from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, and then a semicircle of radius 1 from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$. By the Cauchy Theorem the integral is $0$ as $f$ is holomorphic everywhere, so splitting the integrals into one along the real axis and one along the arc gives:
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = -int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dtheta$$
Now since $f$ is real valued if $c_{k}inmathbb{R}$, $|f|^{2}geq 0$, so $$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dx = left|int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxright| = left|-int_{0}^{pi}ie^{itheta}[f(e^{itheta})]^{2}dthetaright|leq int_{0}^{pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta$$
Similarly by considering the contour traversing the real axis from $(1,0)$ to $(-1,0)$ and then along the semicircle of radius 1 from $(-1,0)$ to $(1,0)$, we get
$$int_{-1}^{1} [f(x)]^{2}dxleq int_{pi}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}dtheta $$
Adding the two then gives the equality
$$int_{-1}^{1}[f(x)]^{2}dxleqpiint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}c_{k}^{2}$$
- I know how to prove the equality $$piint_{0}^{2pi}|f(e^{itheta})|^{2}frac{dtheta}{2pi} = pisum_{k=0}^{n}|c_{k}|^{2}$$
Here is the full question for reference; (note I only need help for the second part)
sequences-and-series complex-analysis inequality complex-numbers integral-inequality
sequences-and-series complex-analysis inequality complex-numbers integral-inequality
edited Nov 25 at 10:50
Batominovski
31.8k23190
31.8k23190
asked Nov 24 at 7:47
BaroqueFreak
19019
19019
1
Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14
add a comment |
1
Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14
1
1
Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Write $c_k=a_k+text{i}b_k$ for $k=0,1,2,ldots,n$, where $a_k,b_kinmathbb{R}$. Then, $$f(z)=g(z)+text{i},h(z),,$$
where $g(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,a_k,z^k$ and $h(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,b_k,z^k$ are polynomials with real coefficients.
Note that, for $xinmathbb{R}$,
$$big|f(x)big|^2=big(g(x)big)^2+big(h(x)big)^2,.$$
Applying Part (a) of the question, you get
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(g(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,a_k^2$$
and
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(h(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,b_k^2,.$$
Adding the two inequalities above yields
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big|f(x)big|^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,|c_k|^2,.$$
add a comment |
1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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active
oldest
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up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Write $c_k=a_k+text{i}b_k$ for $k=0,1,2,ldots,n$, where $a_k,b_kinmathbb{R}$. Then, $$f(z)=g(z)+text{i},h(z),,$$
where $g(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,a_k,z^k$ and $h(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,b_k,z^k$ are polynomials with real coefficients.
Note that, for $xinmathbb{R}$,
$$big|f(x)big|^2=big(g(x)big)^2+big(h(x)big)^2,.$$
Applying Part (a) of the question, you get
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(g(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,a_k^2$$
and
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(h(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,b_k^2,.$$
Adding the two inequalities above yields
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big|f(x)big|^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,|c_k|^2,.$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Write $c_k=a_k+text{i}b_k$ for $k=0,1,2,ldots,n$, where $a_k,b_kinmathbb{R}$. Then, $$f(z)=g(z)+text{i},h(z),,$$
where $g(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,a_k,z^k$ and $h(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,b_k,z^k$ are polynomials with real coefficients.
Note that, for $xinmathbb{R}$,
$$big|f(x)big|^2=big(g(x)big)^2+big(h(x)big)^2,.$$
Applying Part (a) of the question, you get
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(g(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,a_k^2$$
and
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(h(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,b_k^2,.$$
Adding the two inequalities above yields
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big|f(x)big|^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,|c_k|^2,.$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Write $c_k=a_k+text{i}b_k$ for $k=0,1,2,ldots,n$, where $a_k,b_kinmathbb{R}$. Then, $$f(z)=g(z)+text{i},h(z),,$$
where $g(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,a_k,z^k$ and $h(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,b_k,z^k$ are polynomials with real coefficients.
Note that, for $xinmathbb{R}$,
$$big|f(x)big|^2=big(g(x)big)^2+big(h(x)big)^2,.$$
Applying Part (a) of the question, you get
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(g(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,a_k^2$$
and
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(h(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,b_k^2,.$$
Adding the two inequalities above yields
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big|f(x)big|^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,|c_k|^2,.$$
Write $c_k=a_k+text{i}b_k$ for $k=0,1,2,ldots,n$, where $a_k,b_kinmathbb{R}$. Then, $$f(z)=g(z)+text{i},h(z),,$$
where $g(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,a_k,z^k$ and $h(z):=sumlimits_{k=0}^n,b_k,z^k$ are polynomials with real coefficients.
Note that, for $xinmathbb{R}$,
$$big|f(x)big|^2=big(g(x)big)^2+big(h(x)big)^2,.$$
Applying Part (a) of the question, you get
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(g(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,a_k^2$$
and
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big(h(x)big)^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,b_k^2,.$$
Adding the two inequalities above yields
$$int_{-1}^{+1},big|f(x)big|^2,text{d}xleq pi,sum_{k=0}^n,|c_k|^2,.$$
answered Nov 25 at 10:47
Batominovski
31.8k23190
31.8k23190
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Can you show us how you proved the first part?
– Yadati Kiran
Nov 24 at 9:43
Okay, I just attached a proof of the first part if it helps
– BaroqueFreak
Nov 25 at 0:14