Prove that $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$.
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Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of non-negative Lebesgue measurable functions such that $f_n$ converges to $f$ and $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$. It is needed to prove that $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$. The following is my solution.
By Fatou's lemma $int f=int (liminf f_n)leq liminfint f_n$. Since $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$, $int f_nleqint f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int fleq liminfint f_n$. Hence $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$.
Could someone tell me if my proof is correct? Thanks.
measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-integral self-learning
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up vote
6
down vote
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Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of non-negative Lebesgue measurable functions such that $f_n$ converges to $f$ and $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$. It is needed to prove that $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$. The following is my solution.
By Fatou's lemma $int f=int (liminf f_n)leq liminfint f_n$. Since $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$, $int f_nleqint f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int fleq liminfint f_n$. Hence $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$.
Could someone tell me if my proof is correct? Thanks.
measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-integral self-learning
2
Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of non-negative Lebesgue measurable functions such that $f_n$ converges to $f$ and $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$. It is needed to prove that $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$. The following is my solution.
By Fatou's lemma $int f=int (liminf f_n)leq liminfint f_n$. Since $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$, $int f_nleqint f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int fleq liminfint f_n$. Hence $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$.
Could someone tell me if my proof is correct? Thanks.
measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-integral self-learning
Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of non-negative Lebesgue measurable functions such that $f_n$ converges to $f$ and $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$. It is needed to prove that $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$. The following is my solution.
By Fatou's lemma $int f=int (liminf f_n)leq liminfint f_n$. Since $f_nleq f forall nin mathbb{Z^+}$, $int f_nleqint f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int f$. Therefore $limsupint f_nleq int fleq liminfint f_n$. Hence $lim_{ntoinfty}int f_n=int f$.
Could someone tell me if my proof is correct? Thanks.
measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-integral self-learning
measure-theory proof-verification lebesgue-integral self-learning
asked May 3 '17 at 20:26
Janitha357
1,719516
1,719516
2
Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36
add a comment |
2
Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36
2
2
Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36
Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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Your proof is correct! Depending on the level of detail you want to include you might want to consider adding a sentence on why we can deduce that $lim_{n to infty} int f_n$ exists from the fact that $limsup int f_n leq liminf int f_n$.
For future reference, the result you have proved is called Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. It is an interesting fact that one can prove the other implication as well, that is, one can derive Fatou's Lemma assuming Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. So, if you can write down a proof of LMCT without invoking Fatou's Lemma, then you will have shown that these two results are equivalent to each other. You can take a look at Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis for such a proof of LMCT.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Your proof is correct! Depending on the level of detail you want to include you might want to consider adding a sentence on why we can deduce that $lim_{n to infty} int f_n$ exists from the fact that $limsup int f_n leq liminf int f_n$.
For future reference, the result you have proved is called Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. It is an interesting fact that one can prove the other implication as well, that is, one can derive Fatou's Lemma assuming Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. So, if you can write down a proof of LMCT without invoking Fatou's Lemma, then you will have shown that these two results are equivalent to each other. You can take a look at Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis for such a proof of LMCT.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Your proof is correct! Depending on the level of detail you want to include you might want to consider adding a sentence on why we can deduce that $lim_{n to infty} int f_n$ exists from the fact that $limsup int f_n leq liminf int f_n$.
For future reference, the result you have proved is called Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. It is an interesting fact that one can prove the other implication as well, that is, one can derive Fatou's Lemma assuming Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. So, if you can write down a proof of LMCT without invoking Fatou's Lemma, then you will have shown that these two results are equivalent to each other. You can take a look at Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis for such a proof of LMCT.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Your proof is correct! Depending on the level of detail you want to include you might want to consider adding a sentence on why we can deduce that $lim_{n to infty} int f_n$ exists from the fact that $limsup int f_n leq liminf int f_n$.
For future reference, the result you have proved is called Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. It is an interesting fact that one can prove the other implication as well, that is, one can derive Fatou's Lemma assuming Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. So, if you can write down a proof of LMCT without invoking Fatou's Lemma, then you will have shown that these two results are equivalent to each other. You can take a look at Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis for such a proof of LMCT.
Your proof is correct! Depending on the level of detail you want to include you might want to consider adding a sentence on why we can deduce that $lim_{n to infty} int f_n$ exists from the fact that $limsup int f_n leq liminf int f_n$.
For future reference, the result you have proved is called Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. It is an interesting fact that one can prove the other implication as well, that is, one can derive Fatou's Lemma assuming Lebesgue's Monotone Convergence Theorem. So, if you can write down a proof of LMCT without invoking Fatou's Lemma, then you will have shown that these two results are equivalent to each other. You can take a look at Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis for such a proof of LMCT.
answered Nov 24 at 6:11
Brahadeesh
5,83441958
5,83441958
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Looks good! ${} $
– PhoemueX
May 3 '17 at 20:36