Inverse of complex number imaginary part











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I have something like this
$$z+{frac{1}{i}}$$
Which I expand:
$$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1}{i}} = x+i(y+?)$$
I'm not sure what should be in place of $?$.



Assuming $itimes x = {frac{1}{i}}$, then $x = {frac{1}{i}} div i = {frac{1}{i}} times {frac{1}{i}} = -1$. But definitely, $itimes (-1) neq {frac{1}{i}}$.










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    I have something like this
    $$z+{frac{1}{i}}$$
    Which I expand:
    $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1}{i}} = x+i(y+?)$$
    I'm not sure what should be in place of $?$.



    Assuming $itimes x = {frac{1}{i}}$, then $x = {frac{1}{i}} div i = {frac{1}{i}} times {frac{1}{i}} = -1$. But definitely, $itimes (-1) neq {frac{1}{i}}$.










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I have something like this
      $$z+{frac{1}{i}}$$
      Which I expand:
      $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1}{i}} = x+i(y+?)$$
      I'm not sure what should be in place of $?$.



      Assuming $itimes x = {frac{1}{i}}$, then $x = {frac{1}{i}} div i = {frac{1}{i}} times {frac{1}{i}} = -1$. But definitely, $itimes (-1) neq {frac{1}{i}}$.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have something like this
      $$z+{frac{1}{i}}$$
      Which I expand:
      $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1}{i}} = x+i(y+?)$$
      I'm not sure what should be in place of $?$.



      Assuming $itimes x = {frac{1}{i}}$, then $x = {frac{1}{i}} div i = {frac{1}{i}} times {frac{1}{i}} = -1$. But definitely, $itimes (-1) neq {frac{1}{i}}$.







      complex-numbers






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      asked Nov 25 at 19:09









      user3132457

      856




      856






















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          We have



          $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1cdot i}{icdot i}} = x+yi+{frac{i}{-1}}= x+iy-i=x+(y-1)i$$



          and more in general for any $zin mathbb{C}, zneq 0$



          $$frac1{z}=frac1{z}frac{bar z}{bar z}=frac{bar z}{z bar z}=frac{bar z}{mid z mid^2}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
            – user3132457
            Nov 26 at 3:45










          • @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
            – gimusi
            Nov 26 at 6:24











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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          We have



          $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1cdot i}{icdot i}} = x+yi+{frac{i}{-1}}= x+iy-i=x+(y-1)i$$



          and more in general for any $zin mathbb{C}, zneq 0$



          $$frac1{z}=frac1{z}frac{bar z}{bar z}=frac{bar z}{z bar z}=frac{bar z}{mid z mid^2}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
            – user3132457
            Nov 26 at 3:45










          • @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
            – gimusi
            Nov 26 at 6:24















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          We have



          $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1cdot i}{icdot i}} = x+yi+{frac{i}{-1}}= x+iy-i=x+(y-1)i$$



          and more in general for any $zin mathbb{C}, zneq 0$



          $$frac1{z}=frac1{z}frac{bar z}{bar z}=frac{bar z}{z bar z}=frac{bar z}{mid z mid^2}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
            – user3132457
            Nov 26 at 3:45










          • @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
            – gimusi
            Nov 26 at 6:24













          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          We have



          $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1cdot i}{icdot i}} = x+yi+{frac{i}{-1}}= x+iy-i=x+(y-1)i$$



          and more in general for any $zin mathbb{C}, zneq 0$



          $$frac1{z}=frac1{z}frac{bar z}{bar z}=frac{bar z}{z bar z}=frac{bar z}{mid z mid^2}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          We have



          $$z+{frac{1}{i}} = x+yi+{frac{1cdot i}{icdot i}} = x+yi+{frac{i}{-1}}= x+iy-i=x+(y-1)i$$



          and more in general for any $zin mathbb{C}, zneq 0$



          $$frac1{z}=frac1{z}frac{bar z}{bar z}=frac{bar z}{z bar z}=frac{bar z}{mid z mid^2}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 25 at 19:11









          gimusi

          90.6k74495




          90.6k74495












          • so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
            – user3132457
            Nov 26 at 3:45










          • @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
            – gimusi
            Nov 26 at 6:24


















          • so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
            – user3132457
            Nov 26 at 3:45










          • @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
            – gimusi
            Nov 26 at 6:24
















          so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
          – user3132457
          Nov 26 at 3:45




          so, $${frac{1}{i}}=-i$$? I just don't understand how? Well by expanding, yes. But, by intuition, no.
          – user3132457
          Nov 26 at 3:45












          @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
          – gimusi
          Nov 26 at 6:24




          @user3132457 Yes exactly and indeed, to confirm the result, we ca check that $-i$ is the inverse of $i$ indeed $$-icdot i=-(-1)=1$$.
          – gimusi
          Nov 26 at 6:24


















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