Show that $f$ is Lebesgue integrable [on hold]
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Let $(mathbb R, mathcal{B}, lambda) $ be a measurable space, where $mathcal{B}$ denotes the Borel sigma algebra on $mathbb R$ and $lambda$ the Lebesgue measure.
Is the function :
$$f(x)= begin {cases} +infty &text { if } x=0\ ln|x| &text { if }0<|x|<1\0 &text{ if }|x|ge 1 end {cases}$$
Lebesgue integrable ?
It is my first exercise of that type and I don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis measure-theory
put on hold as off-topic by Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797 Nov 22 at 2:59
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
add a comment |
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
Let $(mathbb R, mathcal{B}, lambda) $ be a measurable space, where $mathcal{B}$ denotes the Borel sigma algebra on $mathbb R$ and $lambda$ the Lebesgue measure.
Is the function :
$$f(x)= begin {cases} +infty &text { if } x=0\ ln|x| &text { if }0<|x|<1\0 &text{ if }|x|ge 1 end {cases}$$
Lebesgue integrable ?
It is my first exercise of that type and I don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis measure-theory
put on hold as off-topic by Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797 Nov 22 at 2:59
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29
add a comment |
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
Let $(mathbb R, mathcal{B}, lambda) $ be a measurable space, where $mathcal{B}$ denotes the Borel sigma algebra on $mathbb R$ and $lambda$ the Lebesgue measure.
Is the function :
$$f(x)= begin {cases} +infty &text { if } x=0\ ln|x| &text { if }0<|x|<1\0 &text{ if }|x|ge 1 end {cases}$$
Lebesgue integrable ?
It is my first exercise of that type and I don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis measure-theory
Let $(mathbb R, mathcal{B}, lambda) $ be a measurable space, where $mathcal{B}$ denotes the Borel sigma algebra on $mathbb R$ and $lambda$ the Lebesgue measure.
Is the function :
$$f(x)= begin {cases} +infty &text { if } x=0\ ln|x| &text { if }0<|x|<1\0 &text{ if }|x|ge 1 end {cases}$$
Lebesgue integrable ?
It is my first exercise of that type and I don't know how to proceed.
real-analysis measure-theory
real-analysis measure-theory
edited Nov 21 at 18:08
Yadati Kiran
964316
964316
asked Nov 21 at 18:01
Jonathan Baram
139113
139113
put on hold as off-topic by Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797 Nov 22 at 2:59
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
put on hold as off-topic by Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797 Nov 22 at 2:59
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Shaun, Chinnapparaj R, Shailesh, user10354138, user302797
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29
add a comment |
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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up vote
0
down vote
This question is relatively simple, but doesn't deserve so many downvotes. First note that $ln(x)$ is negative on $(0,1)$. Thus we need to show the integrability of $|ln(x)|$. Because of the continuity, the Lebesgue-integral over $(varepsilon,1)$ is the same as the Riemann-integral. So, we only need to show that this function is Riemann-integrable. (Apply monotone convergence theorem with $varepsilon downarrow 0$.)
Now note that $f(x) = x ln(x)$, $x in (0,infty)$, can be continuously extenend on $[0,infty)$ with $f(0)=0$. Thus
$$int_varepsilon^1 ln(x) , d x = x ln(x) Big|_{x= varepsilon}^1 - int_varepsilon^1 1 , d x = -varepsilon ln(varepsilon)-(1-varepsilon).$$
For $varepsilon downarrow 0$ we get that this term convergences towards $-1$.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
This question is relatively simple, but doesn't deserve so many downvotes. First note that $ln(x)$ is negative on $(0,1)$. Thus we need to show the integrability of $|ln(x)|$. Because of the continuity, the Lebesgue-integral over $(varepsilon,1)$ is the same as the Riemann-integral. So, we only need to show that this function is Riemann-integrable. (Apply monotone convergence theorem with $varepsilon downarrow 0$.)
Now note that $f(x) = x ln(x)$, $x in (0,infty)$, can be continuously extenend on $[0,infty)$ with $f(0)=0$. Thus
$$int_varepsilon^1 ln(x) , d x = x ln(x) Big|_{x= varepsilon}^1 - int_varepsilon^1 1 , d x = -varepsilon ln(varepsilon)-(1-varepsilon).$$
For $varepsilon downarrow 0$ we get that this term convergences towards $-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
This question is relatively simple, but doesn't deserve so many downvotes. First note that $ln(x)$ is negative on $(0,1)$. Thus we need to show the integrability of $|ln(x)|$. Because of the continuity, the Lebesgue-integral over $(varepsilon,1)$ is the same as the Riemann-integral. So, we only need to show that this function is Riemann-integrable. (Apply monotone convergence theorem with $varepsilon downarrow 0$.)
Now note that $f(x) = x ln(x)$, $x in (0,infty)$, can be continuously extenend on $[0,infty)$ with $f(0)=0$. Thus
$$int_varepsilon^1 ln(x) , d x = x ln(x) Big|_{x= varepsilon}^1 - int_varepsilon^1 1 , d x = -varepsilon ln(varepsilon)-(1-varepsilon).$$
For $varepsilon downarrow 0$ we get that this term convergences towards $-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
This question is relatively simple, but doesn't deserve so many downvotes. First note that $ln(x)$ is negative on $(0,1)$. Thus we need to show the integrability of $|ln(x)|$. Because of the continuity, the Lebesgue-integral over $(varepsilon,1)$ is the same as the Riemann-integral. So, we only need to show that this function is Riemann-integrable. (Apply monotone convergence theorem with $varepsilon downarrow 0$.)
Now note that $f(x) = x ln(x)$, $x in (0,infty)$, can be continuously extenend on $[0,infty)$ with $f(0)=0$. Thus
$$int_varepsilon^1 ln(x) , d x = x ln(x) Big|_{x= varepsilon}^1 - int_varepsilon^1 1 , d x = -varepsilon ln(varepsilon)-(1-varepsilon).$$
For $varepsilon downarrow 0$ we get that this term convergences towards $-1$.
This question is relatively simple, but doesn't deserve so many downvotes. First note that $ln(x)$ is negative on $(0,1)$. Thus we need to show the integrability of $|ln(x)|$. Because of the continuity, the Lebesgue-integral over $(varepsilon,1)$ is the same as the Riemann-integral. So, we only need to show that this function is Riemann-integrable. (Apply monotone convergence theorem with $varepsilon downarrow 0$.)
Now note that $f(x) = x ln(x)$, $x in (0,infty)$, can be continuously extenend on $[0,infty)$ with $f(0)=0$. Thus
$$int_varepsilon^1 ln(x) , d x = x ln(x) Big|_{x= varepsilon}^1 - int_varepsilon^1 1 , d x = -varepsilon ln(varepsilon)-(1-varepsilon).$$
For $varepsilon downarrow 0$ we get that this term convergences towards $-1$.
edited Nov 22 at 7:18
answered Nov 21 at 20:18
p4sch
3,630216
3,630216
add a comment |
add a comment |
why so many downvotes ?
– Jonathan Baram
Nov 21 at 18:29