Linear algebra. Vectors












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Let $ vec{a}, vec{b}, vec{c} $ be non-complanar vectors so that $ vec{a} times vec{b}, vec{b}, vec{c} times vec{a}$ on the same plane. How can I show that $ vec{a}$ is perpendicular to $vec{b}$?










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    Let $ vec{a}, vec{b}, vec{c} $ be non-complanar vectors so that $ vec{a} times vec{b}, vec{b}, vec{c} times vec{a}$ on the same plane. How can I show that $ vec{a}$ is perpendicular to $vec{b}$?










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      Let $ vec{a}, vec{b}, vec{c} $ be non-complanar vectors so that $ vec{a} times vec{b}, vec{b}, vec{c} times vec{a}$ on the same plane. How can I show that $ vec{a}$ is perpendicular to $vec{b}$?










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      Let $ vec{a}, vec{b}, vec{c} $ be non-complanar vectors so that $ vec{a} times vec{b}, vec{b}, vec{c} times vec{a}$ on the same plane. How can I show that $ vec{a}$ is perpendicular to $vec{b}$?







      linear-algebra vectors






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      asked Dec 1 at 17:25









      nene123

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          Idea:



          We can (probably) write $$vec{b} = lambda (vec{a} times vec{b}) + mu (vec{c} times vec{a})$$ for some scalars $lambda, mu$ as the three vectors are co-planar. Now the inner product with $vec{a}$ of this expression will be $0$, as the inner product is linear and $vec{a} cdot (vec{a} times vec{b})=0$ and $vec{a} cdot (vec{c} times vec{a}) =0$.



          The previous will only fail if $vec{c} times vec{a}$ and $(vec{a} times vec{b})$ are dependent; explore what you can do in that case.






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2














            Idea:



            We can (probably) write $$vec{b} = lambda (vec{a} times vec{b}) + mu (vec{c} times vec{a})$$ for some scalars $lambda, mu$ as the three vectors are co-planar. Now the inner product with $vec{a}$ of this expression will be $0$, as the inner product is linear and $vec{a} cdot (vec{a} times vec{b})=0$ and $vec{a} cdot (vec{c} times vec{a}) =0$.



            The previous will only fail if $vec{c} times vec{a}$ and $(vec{a} times vec{b})$ are dependent; explore what you can do in that case.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              2














              Idea:



              We can (probably) write $$vec{b} = lambda (vec{a} times vec{b}) + mu (vec{c} times vec{a})$$ for some scalars $lambda, mu$ as the three vectors are co-planar. Now the inner product with $vec{a}$ of this expression will be $0$, as the inner product is linear and $vec{a} cdot (vec{a} times vec{b})=0$ and $vec{a} cdot (vec{c} times vec{a}) =0$.



              The previous will only fail if $vec{c} times vec{a}$ and $(vec{a} times vec{b})$ are dependent; explore what you can do in that case.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                2












                2








                2






                Idea:



                We can (probably) write $$vec{b} = lambda (vec{a} times vec{b}) + mu (vec{c} times vec{a})$$ for some scalars $lambda, mu$ as the three vectors are co-planar. Now the inner product with $vec{a}$ of this expression will be $0$, as the inner product is linear and $vec{a} cdot (vec{a} times vec{b})=0$ and $vec{a} cdot (vec{c} times vec{a}) =0$.



                The previous will only fail if $vec{c} times vec{a}$ and $(vec{a} times vec{b})$ are dependent; explore what you can do in that case.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Idea:



                We can (probably) write $$vec{b} = lambda (vec{a} times vec{b}) + mu (vec{c} times vec{a})$$ for some scalars $lambda, mu$ as the three vectors are co-planar. Now the inner product with $vec{a}$ of this expression will be $0$, as the inner product is linear and $vec{a} cdot (vec{a} times vec{b})=0$ and $vec{a} cdot (vec{c} times vec{a}) =0$.



                The previous will only fail if $vec{c} times vec{a}$ and $(vec{a} times vec{b})$ are dependent; explore what you can do in that case.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 1 at 17:43









                Henno Brandsma

                104k346113




                104k346113






























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