Relation between cut families and existence of directed cycles











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I would like to know what you think of the following statement and, in case it is true, how would you prove it. Consider a directed graph $G=(V,A)$ where every vertex has degree higher or equal than three, and which contains an r-arborescence (a directed spanning tree); then




the graph has a directed cycle iff for every maximal obstruction-free family of cuts $mathcal{S}={S_i}_{i=1}^{|V|}$ such that $S_isubset S_{i+1}$, $exists tilde Sinmathcal{S}$ with $|delta^-(tilde S)|geq 1$ and $|delta^+(tilde S)|geq 1$.




An obstruction-free family of cuts is here defined as a family such that $forall Sinmathcal{S}$, no subset of $mathcal{S}setminus S$ forms a partition of $S$. Furthermore, $delta^+(S)$ is the set of outgoing edges in the boundary of $S$ and $delta^-(S)$ is the set of incoming edges in the boundary of $S$.










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    I would like to know what you think of the following statement and, in case it is true, how would you prove it. Consider a directed graph $G=(V,A)$ where every vertex has degree higher or equal than three, and which contains an r-arborescence (a directed spanning tree); then




    the graph has a directed cycle iff for every maximal obstruction-free family of cuts $mathcal{S}={S_i}_{i=1}^{|V|}$ such that $S_isubset S_{i+1}$, $exists tilde Sinmathcal{S}$ with $|delta^-(tilde S)|geq 1$ and $|delta^+(tilde S)|geq 1$.




    An obstruction-free family of cuts is here defined as a family such that $forall Sinmathcal{S}$, no subset of $mathcal{S}setminus S$ forms a partition of $S$. Furthermore, $delta^+(S)$ is the set of outgoing edges in the boundary of $S$ and $delta^-(S)$ is the set of incoming edges in the boundary of $S$.










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      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I would like to know what you think of the following statement and, in case it is true, how would you prove it. Consider a directed graph $G=(V,A)$ where every vertex has degree higher or equal than three, and which contains an r-arborescence (a directed spanning tree); then




      the graph has a directed cycle iff for every maximal obstruction-free family of cuts $mathcal{S}={S_i}_{i=1}^{|V|}$ such that $S_isubset S_{i+1}$, $exists tilde Sinmathcal{S}$ with $|delta^-(tilde S)|geq 1$ and $|delta^+(tilde S)|geq 1$.




      An obstruction-free family of cuts is here defined as a family such that $forall Sinmathcal{S}$, no subset of $mathcal{S}setminus S$ forms a partition of $S$. Furthermore, $delta^+(S)$ is the set of outgoing edges in the boundary of $S$ and $delta^-(S)$ is the set of incoming edges in the boundary of $S$.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I would like to know what you think of the following statement and, in case it is true, how would you prove it. Consider a directed graph $G=(V,A)$ where every vertex has degree higher or equal than three, and which contains an r-arborescence (a directed spanning tree); then




      the graph has a directed cycle iff for every maximal obstruction-free family of cuts $mathcal{S}={S_i}_{i=1}^{|V|}$ such that $S_isubset S_{i+1}$, $exists tilde Sinmathcal{S}$ with $|delta^-(tilde S)|geq 1$ and $|delta^+(tilde S)|geq 1$.




      An obstruction-free family of cuts is here defined as a family such that $forall Sinmathcal{S}$, no subset of $mathcal{S}setminus S$ forms a partition of $S$. Furthermore, $delta^+(S)$ is the set of outgoing edges in the boundary of $S$ and $delta^-(S)$ is the set of incoming edges in the boundary of $S$.







      graph-theory directed-graphs






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      edited Nov 26 at 15:30

























      asked Nov 26 at 15:21









      Tanatofobico

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          If my reasoning are right then it took me more time to understand the statement than to prove it. :-) As I understood, the condition after “iff” is equivalent to that for any ordering $v_1,dots, v_n$ of vertices of there exists $i$ such that $G$ contains edges $(v_j,v_{j’})$ and $(v_{k’},v_k)$ with $j,kle i<j’,k’$. Now we can prove the statement for any directed graph $G$.



          Assume that the graph $G$ has a directed cycle $C$. Then given an ordering of vertices of $G$ let $v_i$ be the first vertex of $C$ with respect to this order. Then the condition holds even for $j=k=i$.



          Conversely, if $G$ is a directed acyclic graph then a topological ordering of its vertices clearly violates the condition.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
            – Tanatofobico
            Dec 5 at 10:58










          • @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
            – Alex Ravsky
            Dec 5 at 12:23













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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If my reasoning are right then it took me more time to understand the statement than to prove it. :-) As I understood, the condition after “iff” is equivalent to that for any ordering $v_1,dots, v_n$ of vertices of there exists $i$ such that $G$ contains edges $(v_j,v_{j’})$ and $(v_{k’},v_k)$ with $j,kle i<j’,k’$. Now we can prove the statement for any directed graph $G$.



          Assume that the graph $G$ has a directed cycle $C$. Then given an ordering of vertices of $G$ let $v_i$ be the first vertex of $C$ with respect to this order. Then the condition holds even for $j=k=i$.



          Conversely, if $G$ is a directed acyclic graph then a topological ordering of its vertices clearly violates the condition.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
            – Tanatofobico
            Dec 5 at 10:58










          • @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
            – Alex Ravsky
            Dec 5 at 12:23

















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If my reasoning are right then it took me more time to understand the statement than to prove it. :-) As I understood, the condition after “iff” is equivalent to that for any ordering $v_1,dots, v_n$ of vertices of there exists $i$ such that $G$ contains edges $(v_j,v_{j’})$ and $(v_{k’},v_k)$ with $j,kle i<j’,k’$. Now we can prove the statement for any directed graph $G$.



          Assume that the graph $G$ has a directed cycle $C$. Then given an ordering of vertices of $G$ let $v_i$ be the first vertex of $C$ with respect to this order. Then the condition holds even for $j=k=i$.



          Conversely, if $G$ is a directed acyclic graph then a topological ordering of its vertices clearly violates the condition.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
            – Tanatofobico
            Dec 5 at 10:58










          • @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
            – Alex Ravsky
            Dec 5 at 12:23















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          If my reasoning are right then it took me more time to understand the statement than to prove it. :-) As I understood, the condition after “iff” is equivalent to that for any ordering $v_1,dots, v_n$ of vertices of there exists $i$ such that $G$ contains edges $(v_j,v_{j’})$ and $(v_{k’},v_k)$ with $j,kle i<j’,k’$. Now we can prove the statement for any directed graph $G$.



          Assume that the graph $G$ has a directed cycle $C$. Then given an ordering of vertices of $G$ let $v_i$ be the first vertex of $C$ with respect to this order. Then the condition holds even for $j=k=i$.



          Conversely, if $G$ is a directed acyclic graph then a topological ordering of its vertices clearly violates the condition.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          If my reasoning are right then it took me more time to understand the statement than to prove it. :-) As I understood, the condition after “iff” is equivalent to that for any ordering $v_1,dots, v_n$ of vertices of there exists $i$ such that $G$ contains edges $(v_j,v_{j’})$ and $(v_{k’},v_k)$ with $j,kle i<j’,k’$. Now we can prove the statement for any directed graph $G$.



          Assume that the graph $G$ has a directed cycle $C$. Then given an ordering of vertices of $G$ let $v_i$ be the first vertex of $C$ with respect to this order. Then the condition holds even for $j=k=i$.



          Conversely, if $G$ is a directed acyclic graph then a topological ordering of its vertices clearly violates the condition.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 3 at 19:12









          Alex Ravsky

          37.7k32079




          37.7k32079








          • 1




            Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
            – Tanatofobico
            Dec 5 at 10:58










          • @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
            – Alex Ravsky
            Dec 5 at 12:23
















          • 1




            Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
            – Tanatofobico
            Dec 5 at 10:58










          • @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
            – Alex Ravsky
            Dec 5 at 12:23










          1




          1




          Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
          – Tanatofobico
          Dec 5 at 10:58




          Thank you! Indeed at the end I managed to prove the second implication you mentioned (which was the difficult one for me) by explicitely showing a construction of the obstruction free-family by numbering vertices according to their appearance in paths (which turns out to be what you call topological ordering!) thank you for clearing my mind on this. Can you suggest more literature on the topic which i can read?
          – Tanatofobico
          Dec 5 at 10:58












          @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
          – Alex Ravsky
          Dec 5 at 12:23






          @Tanatofobico Unfortunately, I an not a deep specialist in this topic, but I expect that at the end of the linked Wikipedia page are some references.
          – Alex Ravsky
          Dec 5 at 12:23




















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