$a = d$ implies $a^b = d^b$












2












$begingroup$



Prove that $a = d$ implies $a^b = d^b$, where $a, d$ are arbitrary
nonnegative integers and $b$ is any positive integer.




If I could use division I think it could be something like that:
$a^b / d^b = a ^{b-b} = a^0 = 1$ (assuming $a = d$), but I'm trying to figure out how to prove this using only multiplication and addition properties (natural numbers).



Here's my idea:



If a = b then there exists an integer $k$ such that $x = ak$ and $x = bk$, that also implies $(a^b)k = (d^b) k$ and $a^b = d^b$ by using the cancellation law of multiplication.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$



    Prove that $a = d$ implies $a^b = d^b$, where $a, d$ are arbitrary
    nonnegative integers and $b$ is any positive integer.




    If I could use division I think it could be something like that:
    $a^b / d^b = a ^{b-b} = a^0 = 1$ (assuming $a = d$), but I'm trying to figure out how to prove this using only multiplication and addition properties (natural numbers).



    Here's my idea:



    If a = b then there exists an integer $k$ such that $x = ak$ and $x = bk$, that also implies $(a^b)k = (d^b) k$ and $a^b = d^b$ by using the cancellation law of multiplication.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$



      Prove that $a = d$ implies $a^b = d^b$, where $a, d$ are arbitrary
      nonnegative integers and $b$ is any positive integer.




      If I could use division I think it could be something like that:
      $a^b / d^b = a ^{b-b} = a^0 = 1$ (assuming $a = d$), but I'm trying to figure out how to prove this using only multiplication and addition properties (natural numbers).



      Here's my idea:



      If a = b then there exists an integer $k$ such that $x = ak$ and $x = bk$, that also implies $(a^b)k = (d^b) k$ and $a^b = d^b$ by using the cancellation law of multiplication.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Prove that $a = d$ implies $a^b = d^b$, where $a, d$ are arbitrary
      nonnegative integers and $b$ is any positive integer.




      If I could use division I think it could be something like that:
      $a^b / d^b = a ^{b-b} = a^0 = 1$ (assuming $a = d$), but I'm trying to figure out how to prove this using only multiplication and addition properties (natural numbers).



      Here's my idea:



      If a = b then there exists an integer $k$ such that $x = ak$ and $x = bk$, that also implies $(a^b)k = (d^b) k$ and $a^b = d^b$ by using the cancellation law of multiplication.







      proof-verification natural-numbers






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 7 '18 at 17:35









      adriana634adriana634

      436




      436






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          You're overthinking it. We proceed by induction on $b$. The case $b=1$ is trivial, so assume it works when $b=k$. Then $a^{k+1}=a^ka=d^kd=d^{k+1}$ completes the inductive step.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            There must be something I don't understand. Are you sure you have asked the question you intended?



            The equals sign in the assumption $a=d$ means that "$a$" and "$d$" are essentially just different names for the same number. So you can substitute one for the other in any formula. There is nothing to prove.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              You took the words right out of my mouth.
              $endgroup$
              – Shubham Johri
              Dec 7 '18 at 21:00











            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            You're overthinking it. We proceed by induction on $b$. The case $b=1$ is trivial, so assume it works when $b=k$. Then $a^{k+1}=a^ka=d^kd=d^{k+1}$ completes the inductive step.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              You're overthinking it. We proceed by induction on $b$. The case $b=1$ is trivial, so assume it works when $b=k$. Then $a^{k+1}=a^ka=d^kd=d^{k+1}$ completes the inductive step.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                You're overthinking it. We proceed by induction on $b$. The case $b=1$ is trivial, so assume it works when $b=k$. Then $a^{k+1}=a^ka=d^kd=d^{k+1}$ completes the inductive step.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                You're overthinking it. We proceed by induction on $b$. The case $b=1$ is trivial, so assume it works when $b=k$. Then $a^{k+1}=a^ka=d^kd=d^{k+1}$ completes the inductive step.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 7 '18 at 17:39









                J.G.J.G.

                24.1k22539




                24.1k22539























                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    There must be something I don't understand. Are you sure you have asked the question you intended?



                    The equals sign in the assumption $a=d$ means that "$a$" and "$d$" are essentially just different names for the same number. So you can substitute one for the other in any formula. There is nothing to prove.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      You took the words right out of my mouth.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Johri
                      Dec 7 '18 at 21:00
















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    There must be something I don't understand. Are you sure you have asked the question you intended?



                    The equals sign in the assumption $a=d$ means that "$a$" and "$d$" are essentially just different names for the same number. So you can substitute one for the other in any formula. There is nothing to prove.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      You took the words right out of my mouth.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Johri
                      Dec 7 '18 at 21:00














                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    There must be something I don't understand. Are you sure you have asked the question you intended?



                    The equals sign in the assumption $a=d$ means that "$a$" and "$d$" are essentially just different names for the same number. So you can substitute one for the other in any formula. There is nothing to prove.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    There must be something I don't understand. Are you sure you have asked the question you intended?



                    The equals sign in the assumption $a=d$ means that "$a$" and "$d$" are essentially just different names for the same number. So you can substitute one for the other in any formula. There is nothing to prove.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 7 '18 at 18:50









                    Ethan BolkerEthan Bolker

                    42.1k548111




                    42.1k548111












                    • $begingroup$
                      You took the words right out of my mouth.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Johri
                      Dec 7 '18 at 21:00


















                    • $begingroup$
                      You took the words right out of my mouth.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Shubham Johri
                      Dec 7 '18 at 21:00
















                    $begingroup$
                    You took the words right out of my mouth.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Shubham Johri
                    Dec 7 '18 at 21:00




                    $begingroup$
                    You took the words right out of my mouth.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Shubham Johri
                    Dec 7 '18 at 21:00


















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