difference between convergence along free ultrafilter and common convergence












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Suppose $mathcal{F}$ is any free ultrafilter on $betamathbb{N}setminusmathbb{N}$,$(x_n)$ is a sequence of complex numbers.



My question is:What is the deference between the limit along $mathcal{F}$ ,$lim_{mathcal{F}}x_n$ and $lim_{nto infty}x_n$?If $lim_{ntoinfty}x_nnot to 0$,can we conclude that $lim_{mathcal{F}}x_nnotto 0$?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Dec 7 '18 at 2:23


















2












$begingroup$


Suppose $mathcal{F}$ is any free ultrafilter on $betamathbb{N}setminusmathbb{N}$,$(x_n)$ is a sequence of complex numbers.



My question is:What is the deference between the limit along $mathcal{F}$ ,$lim_{mathcal{F}}x_n$ and $lim_{nto infty}x_n$?If $lim_{ntoinfty}x_nnot to 0$,can we conclude that $lim_{mathcal{F}}x_nnotto 0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Dec 7 '18 at 2:23
















2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


Suppose $mathcal{F}$ is any free ultrafilter on $betamathbb{N}setminusmathbb{N}$,$(x_n)$ is a sequence of complex numbers.



My question is:What is the deference between the limit along $mathcal{F}$ ,$lim_{mathcal{F}}x_n$ and $lim_{nto infty}x_n$?If $lim_{ntoinfty}x_nnot to 0$,can we conclude that $lim_{mathcal{F}}x_nnotto 0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $mathcal{F}$ is any free ultrafilter on $betamathbb{N}setminusmathbb{N}$,$(x_n)$ is a sequence of complex numbers.



My question is:What is the deference between the limit along $mathcal{F}$ ,$lim_{mathcal{F}}x_n$ and $lim_{nto infty}x_n$?If $lim_{ntoinfty}x_nnot to 0$,can we conclude that $lim_{mathcal{F}}x_nnotto 0$?







general-topology convergence filters






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edited Dec 6 '18 at 22:09









Eric Wofsey

181k12208336




181k12208336










asked Dec 6 '18 at 21:59









mathrookiemathrookie

832512




832512








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Dec 7 '18 at 2:23
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Dec 7 '18 at 2:23










2




2




$begingroup$
The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Dec 7 '18 at 2:23






$begingroup$
The sequence $(0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,dots)$ doesn't converge. It converges with respect to every ultrafilter $mathcal F$ on $mathbb N$. You should figure out what it converges to, in terms of $mathcal F$. And then you should probably try to prove that every bounded sequence of complex numbers converges with respect to every ultrafilter on $mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Dec 7 '18 at 2:23












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

No, I'll use Andreas' elementary example from the comments: the sequence $x_n = 0$ for $n$ even, $x_n= 1$ for $n$ odd, does not converge in $mathbb{R}$ in the usual topology.



However, if $mathcal{F}$ is a free ultrafilter on $mathbb{N}$, then either $E= {2n: n in mathbb{N}}$ or $O = {2n+1: n in mathbb{N}}$ is in $mathcal{F}$ (as $O cup E = mathbb{N}$ and we have an ultrafilter). If the former, then for any neighbourhood $U$ of $0$ we have that ${n : x_n in U} supseteq E$ so ${n : x_n in U} in mathcal{F}$, and so $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 0$ and if the latter we similarly see that $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 1$. In any case, the non-convergent sequence $(x_n)_n$ does converge along any free ultrafilter. So the proposed implication does not hold.



In fact one can show that any bounded sequence in the reals or complex numbers has a limit along any ultrafilter whether it converges (usually) or not.






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    $begingroup$

    No, I'll use Andreas' elementary example from the comments: the sequence $x_n = 0$ for $n$ even, $x_n= 1$ for $n$ odd, does not converge in $mathbb{R}$ in the usual topology.



    However, if $mathcal{F}$ is a free ultrafilter on $mathbb{N}$, then either $E= {2n: n in mathbb{N}}$ or $O = {2n+1: n in mathbb{N}}$ is in $mathcal{F}$ (as $O cup E = mathbb{N}$ and we have an ultrafilter). If the former, then for any neighbourhood $U$ of $0$ we have that ${n : x_n in U} supseteq E$ so ${n : x_n in U} in mathcal{F}$, and so $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 0$ and if the latter we similarly see that $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 1$. In any case, the non-convergent sequence $(x_n)_n$ does converge along any free ultrafilter. So the proposed implication does not hold.



    In fact one can show that any bounded sequence in the reals or complex numbers has a limit along any ultrafilter whether it converges (usually) or not.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      No, I'll use Andreas' elementary example from the comments: the sequence $x_n = 0$ for $n$ even, $x_n= 1$ for $n$ odd, does not converge in $mathbb{R}$ in the usual topology.



      However, if $mathcal{F}$ is a free ultrafilter on $mathbb{N}$, then either $E= {2n: n in mathbb{N}}$ or $O = {2n+1: n in mathbb{N}}$ is in $mathcal{F}$ (as $O cup E = mathbb{N}$ and we have an ultrafilter). If the former, then for any neighbourhood $U$ of $0$ we have that ${n : x_n in U} supseteq E$ so ${n : x_n in U} in mathcal{F}$, and so $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 0$ and if the latter we similarly see that $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 1$. In any case, the non-convergent sequence $(x_n)_n$ does converge along any free ultrafilter. So the proposed implication does not hold.



      In fact one can show that any bounded sequence in the reals or complex numbers has a limit along any ultrafilter whether it converges (usually) or not.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        No, I'll use Andreas' elementary example from the comments: the sequence $x_n = 0$ for $n$ even, $x_n= 1$ for $n$ odd, does not converge in $mathbb{R}$ in the usual topology.



        However, if $mathcal{F}$ is a free ultrafilter on $mathbb{N}$, then either $E= {2n: n in mathbb{N}}$ or $O = {2n+1: n in mathbb{N}}$ is in $mathcal{F}$ (as $O cup E = mathbb{N}$ and we have an ultrafilter). If the former, then for any neighbourhood $U$ of $0$ we have that ${n : x_n in U} supseteq E$ so ${n : x_n in U} in mathcal{F}$, and so $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 0$ and if the latter we similarly see that $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 1$. In any case, the non-convergent sequence $(x_n)_n$ does converge along any free ultrafilter. So the proposed implication does not hold.



        In fact one can show that any bounded sequence in the reals or complex numbers has a limit along any ultrafilter whether it converges (usually) or not.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        No, I'll use Andreas' elementary example from the comments: the sequence $x_n = 0$ for $n$ even, $x_n= 1$ for $n$ odd, does not converge in $mathbb{R}$ in the usual topology.



        However, if $mathcal{F}$ is a free ultrafilter on $mathbb{N}$, then either $E= {2n: n in mathbb{N}}$ or $O = {2n+1: n in mathbb{N}}$ is in $mathcal{F}$ (as $O cup E = mathbb{N}$ and we have an ultrafilter). If the former, then for any neighbourhood $U$ of $0$ we have that ${n : x_n in U} supseteq E$ so ${n : x_n in U} in mathcal{F}$, and so $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 0$ and if the latter we similarly see that $lim_mathcal{F} x_n = 1$. In any case, the non-convergent sequence $(x_n)_n$ does converge along any free ultrafilter. So the proposed implication does not hold.



        In fact one can show that any bounded sequence in the reals or complex numbers has a limit along any ultrafilter whether it converges (usually) or not.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 9 '18 at 6:45

























        answered Dec 8 '18 at 22:32









        Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

        106k347114




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