Prove that $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$ is natural number











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Prove that for every $n in mathbb N$, $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$ is natural number.



I try in this form $frac{2n+2n^2+n^3}{6}=frac{n(n^2+2n+2)}{6}$ so I must show that $2| n(n^2+2n+2)$ and $3|n(n^2+2n+2)$ then I try that $n=2k$ or $n=2k+1$, $kin mathbb N$ to prove that if $n=2k$ it is trivial if $n=2k+1$ then $(2k+1)((2k+2)^2+1)$ then it is odd number multiply odd number so I did not prove that 2 divide that number, the same is for 3 do you have some idea?










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  • 2




    It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:27










  • yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
    – Marko Škorić
    Nov 22 at 21:31










  • It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
    – fleablood
    Nov 22 at 21:32












  • You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:32










  • See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 23 at 4:09















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Prove that for every $n in mathbb N$, $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$ is natural number.



I try in this form $frac{2n+2n^2+n^3}{6}=frac{n(n^2+2n+2)}{6}$ so I must show that $2| n(n^2+2n+2)$ and $3|n(n^2+2n+2)$ then I try that $n=2k$ or $n=2k+1$, $kin mathbb N$ to prove that if $n=2k$ it is trivial if $n=2k+1$ then $(2k+1)((2k+2)^2+1)$ then it is odd number multiply odd number so I did not prove that 2 divide that number, the same is for 3 do you have some idea?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:27










  • yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
    – Marko Škorić
    Nov 22 at 21:31










  • It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
    – fleablood
    Nov 22 at 21:32












  • You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:32










  • See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 23 at 4:09













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Prove that for every $n in mathbb N$, $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$ is natural number.



I try in this form $frac{2n+2n^2+n^3}{6}=frac{n(n^2+2n+2)}{6}$ so I must show that $2| n(n^2+2n+2)$ and $3|n(n^2+2n+2)$ then I try that $n=2k$ or $n=2k+1$, $kin mathbb N$ to prove that if $n=2k$ it is trivial if $n=2k+1$ then $(2k+1)((2k+2)^2+1)$ then it is odd number multiply odd number so I did not prove that 2 divide that number, the same is for 3 do you have some idea?










share|cite|improve this question













Prove that for every $n in mathbb N$, $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$ is natural number.



I try in this form $frac{2n+2n^2+n^3}{6}=frac{n(n^2+2n+2)}{6}$ so I must show that $2| n(n^2+2n+2)$ and $3|n(n^2+2n+2)$ then I try that $n=2k$ or $n=2k+1$, $kin mathbb N$ to prove that if $n=2k$ it is trivial if $n=2k+1$ then $(2k+1)((2k+2)^2+1)$ then it is odd number multiply odd number so I did not prove that 2 divide that number, the same is for 3 do you have some idea?







discrete-mathematics modular-arithmetic divisibility






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asked Nov 22 at 21:24









Marko Škorić

69810




69810








  • 2




    It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:27










  • yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
    – Marko Škorić
    Nov 22 at 21:31










  • It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
    – fleablood
    Nov 22 at 21:32












  • You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:32










  • See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 23 at 4:09














  • 2




    It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:27










  • yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
    – Marko Škorić
    Nov 22 at 21:31










  • It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
    – fleablood
    Nov 22 at 21:32












  • You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 at 21:32










  • See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Nov 23 at 4:09








2




2




It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 at 21:27




It's not when $n=1$. Have you copied the question correctly?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 at 21:27












yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
– Marko Škorić
Nov 22 at 21:31




yes now i check but even for me it is so strange
– Marko Škorić
Nov 22 at 21:31












It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 21:32






It seems it won't be true if n is odd. If n is 3 for example it is $1+3+frac 92$
– fleablood
Nov 22 at 21:32














You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 at 21:32




You know that $n^3/6+n^2/2+n/3$ is an integer?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 at 21:32












See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
– lab bhattacharjee
Nov 23 at 4:09




See math.stackexchange.com/questions/710361/…
– lab bhattacharjee
Nov 23 at 4:09










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










By below $,6mid nf(n)!=! n(n^2!+3n+2) $ by $ 6mid f(1)!=6,,$ and $,3mid f(-1)!=!0$





Theorem $ forall n!: 6mid nf(n)! iff! 6mid f(1), 3mid f(-1) $ for a polynomial $f(x)$ with integer coef's



Proof $ $ It is true $iff nf(n),$ has roots $,nequiv 0,1pmod{! 2}$ and $,nequiv 0,pm1 pmod{!3}$



But $,0,$ is always a root, and $,1,$ is a root $!iff!!! underbrace{6mid f(1)}_{large 2,3 mid f(1) }!$ and $,-1$ is a root $iff!3mid f(-1)$






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    up vote
    3
    down vote













    It is a typo because $$frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{2}+frac{n^3}{6}={n(n+1)(n+2)over 6}$$ is natural number for all $ninBbb N$ not $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • yep, I suspect the same
      – Masacroso
      Nov 22 at 21:35










    • Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Nov 22 at 21:36


















    up vote
    2
    down vote













    $m=n/3+n^2/3+n^3/6=n(n^2+2n+2)/6=n((n+1)^2+1)/6$. If $n$ is odd then so is $(n+1)^2+1.$ So, for $n$ odd $m$ is not an integer.






    share|cite|improve this answer








    New contributor




    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Insane overkill incoming: if a polynomial $p(x)$ with degree $d$ takes integer values at $xin{0,1,ldots,d}$, it takes integer values at any $xinmathbb{Z}$, as a consequence of the properties of the forward difference operator $delta:p(x)mapsto p(x+1)-p(x)$. Since
      $$ frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{color{red}{2}}+frac{n^3}{6} $$
      takes integer values at ${0,1,2,3}$, it takes integer values at any $ninmathbb{N}$, and these values are clearly non-negative.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        By below $,6mid nf(n)!=! n(n^2!+3n+2) $ by $ 6mid f(1)!=6,,$ and $,3mid f(-1)!=!0$





        Theorem $ forall n!: 6mid nf(n)! iff! 6mid f(1), 3mid f(-1) $ for a polynomial $f(x)$ with integer coef's



        Proof $ $ It is true $iff nf(n),$ has roots $,nequiv 0,1pmod{! 2}$ and $,nequiv 0,pm1 pmod{!3}$



        But $,0,$ is always a root, and $,1,$ is a root $!iff!!! underbrace{6mid f(1)}_{large 2,3 mid f(1) }!$ and $,-1$ is a root $iff!3mid f(-1)$






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          By below $,6mid nf(n)!=! n(n^2!+3n+2) $ by $ 6mid f(1)!=6,,$ and $,3mid f(-1)!=!0$





          Theorem $ forall n!: 6mid nf(n)! iff! 6mid f(1), 3mid f(-1) $ for a polynomial $f(x)$ with integer coef's



          Proof $ $ It is true $iff nf(n),$ has roots $,nequiv 0,1pmod{! 2}$ and $,nequiv 0,pm1 pmod{!3}$



          But $,0,$ is always a root, and $,1,$ is a root $!iff!!! underbrace{6mid f(1)}_{large 2,3 mid f(1) }!$ and $,-1$ is a root $iff!3mid f(-1)$






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted






            By below $,6mid nf(n)!=! n(n^2!+3n+2) $ by $ 6mid f(1)!=6,,$ and $,3mid f(-1)!=!0$





            Theorem $ forall n!: 6mid nf(n)! iff! 6mid f(1), 3mid f(-1) $ for a polynomial $f(x)$ with integer coef's



            Proof $ $ It is true $iff nf(n),$ has roots $,nequiv 0,1pmod{! 2}$ and $,nequiv 0,pm1 pmod{!3}$



            But $,0,$ is always a root, and $,1,$ is a root $!iff!!! underbrace{6mid f(1)}_{large 2,3 mid f(1) }!$ and $,-1$ is a root $iff!3mid f(-1)$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            By below $,6mid nf(n)!=! n(n^2!+3n+2) $ by $ 6mid f(1)!=6,,$ and $,3mid f(-1)!=!0$





            Theorem $ forall n!: 6mid nf(n)! iff! 6mid f(1), 3mid f(-1) $ for a polynomial $f(x)$ with integer coef's



            Proof $ $ It is true $iff nf(n),$ has roots $,nequiv 0,1pmod{! 2}$ and $,nequiv 0,pm1 pmod{!3}$



            But $,0,$ is always a root, and $,1,$ is a root $!iff!!! underbrace{6mid f(1)}_{large 2,3 mid f(1) }!$ and $,-1$ is a root $iff!3mid f(-1)$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 22 at 23:21

























            answered Nov 22 at 22:17









            Bill Dubuque

            206k29189621




            206k29189621






















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                It is a typo because $$frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{2}+frac{n^3}{6}={n(n+1)(n+2)over 6}$$ is natural number for all $ninBbb N$ not $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • yep, I suspect the same
                  – Masacroso
                  Nov 22 at 21:35










                • Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                  Nov 22 at 21:36















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                It is a typo because $$frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{2}+frac{n^3}{6}={n(n+1)(n+2)over 6}$$ is natural number for all $ninBbb N$ not $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • yep, I suspect the same
                  – Masacroso
                  Nov 22 at 21:35










                • Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                  Nov 22 at 21:36













                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                It is a typo because $$frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{2}+frac{n^3}{6}={n(n+1)(n+2)over 6}$$ is natural number for all $ninBbb N$ not $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                It is a typo because $$frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{2}+frac{n^3}{6}={n(n+1)(n+2)over 6}$$ is natural number for all $ninBbb N$ not $frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{3}+frac{n^3}{6}$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 22 at 21:33









                Mostafa Ayaz

                12.5k3733




                12.5k3733












                • yep, I suspect the same
                  – Masacroso
                  Nov 22 at 21:35










                • Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                  Nov 22 at 21:36


















                • yep, I suspect the same
                  – Masacroso
                  Nov 22 at 21:35










                • Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                  – Mostafa Ayaz
                  Nov 22 at 21:36
















                yep, I suspect the same
                – Masacroso
                Nov 22 at 21:35




                yep, I suspect the same
                – Masacroso
                Nov 22 at 21:35












                Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                – Mostafa Ayaz
                Nov 22 at 21:36




                Just requires some manipulation in numerator or denominators........
                – Mostafa Ayaz
                Nov 22 at 21:36










                up vote
                2
                down vote













                $m=n/3+n^2/3+n^3/6=n(n^2+2n+2)/6=n((n+1)^2+1)/6$. If $n$ is odd then so is $(n+1)^2+1.$ So, for $n$ odd $m$ is not an integer.






                share|cite|improve this answer








                New contributor




                John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  $m=n/3+n^2/3+n^3/6=n(n^2+2n+2)/6=n((n+1)^2+1)/6$. If $n$ is odd then so is $(n+1)^2+1.$ So, for $n$ odd $m$ is not an integer.






                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.




















                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    $m=n/3+n^2/3+n^3/6=n(n^2+2n+2)/6=n((n+1)^2+1)/6$. If $n$ is odd then so is $(n+1)^2+1.$ So, for $n$ odd $m$ is not an integer.






                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    $m=n/3+n^2/3+n^3/6=n(n^2+2n+2)/6=n((n+1)^2+1)/6$. If $n$ is odd then so is $(n+1)^2+1.$ So, for $n$ odd $m$ is not an integer.







                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer






                    New contributor




                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                    answered Nov 22 at 21:32









                    John_Wick

                    73919




                    73919




                    New contributor




                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.





                    New contributor





                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.






                    John_Wick is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Insane overkill incoming: if a polynomial $p(x)$ with degree $d$ takes integer values at $xin{0,1,ldots,d}$, it takes integer values at any $xinmathbb{Z}$, as a consequence of the properties of the forward difference operator $delta:p(x)mapsto p(x+1)-p(x)$. Since
                        $$ frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{color{red}{2}}+frac{n^3}{6} $$
                        takes integer values at ${0,1,2,3}$, it takes integer values at any $ninmathbb{N}$, and these values are clearly non-negative.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Insane overkill incoming: if a polynomial $p(x)$ with degree $d$ takes integer values at $xin{0,1,ldots,d}$, it takes integer values at any $xinmathbb{Z}$, as a consequence of the properties of the forward difference operator $delta:p(x)mapsto p(x+1)-p(x)$. Since
                          $$ frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{color{red}{2}}+frac{n^3}{6} $$
                          takes integer values at ${0,1,2,3}$, it takes integer values at any $ninmathbb{N}$, and these values are clearly non-negative.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Insane overkill incoming: if a polynomial $p(x)$ with degree $d$ takes integer values at $xin{0,1,ldots,d}$, it takes integer values at any $xinmathbb{Z}$, as a consequence of the properties of the forward difference operator $delta:p(x)mapsto p(x+1)-p(x)$. Since
                            $$ frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{color{red}{2}}+frac{n^3}{6} $$
                            takes integer values at ${0,1,2,3}$, it takes integer values at any $ninmathbb{N}$, and these values are clearly non-negative.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Insane overkill incoming: if a polynomial $p(x)$ with degree $d$ takes integer values at $xin{0,1,ldots,d}$, it takes integer values at any $xinmathbb{Z}$, as a consequence of the properties of the forward difference operator $delta:p(x)mapsto p(x+1)-p(x)$. Since
                            $$ frac{n}{3}+frac{n^2}{color{red}{2}}+frac{n^3}{6} $$
                            takes integer values at ${0,1,2,3}$, it takes integer values at any $ninmathbb{N}$, and these values are clearly non-negative.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 22 at 22:32









                            Jack D'Aurizio

                            283k33275653




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