Understanding a very elementary property of factorials












6














I've seen this stated in a few places.




If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$




It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.



Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?



Thanks very much.










share|cite|improve this question





























    6














    I've seen this stated in a few places.




    If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$




    It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.



    Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?



    Thanks very much.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      6












      6








      6


      1





      I've seen this stated in a few places.




      If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$




      It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.



      Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?



      Thanks very much.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I've seen this stated in a few places.




      If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$




      It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.



      Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?



      Thanks very much.







      number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 22 '13 at 21:31









      anon

      71.8k5108211




      71.8k5108211










      asked Mar 22 '13 at 20:57









      Larry Freeman

      3,23421239




      3,23421239






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          8














          We find



          $$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$



          $$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$



          since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 9:13










          • @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
            – anon
            Apr 28 '15 at 10:56








          • 1




            Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 11:06





















          2














          A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.




          We obtain for integers $x>0$
          begin{align*}
          color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
          &=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
          &=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
          &,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
          end{align*}

          and the claim follows.




          Comment:




          • In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.


          • In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.


          • In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.


          • In (4) we exchange the order of the series.


          • In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.


          • In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • +1. It's a nice job.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 4:07






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 5:11










          • I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 16:22






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 16:29











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          8














          We find



          $$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$



          $$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$



          since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 9:13










          • @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
            – anon
            Apr 28 '15 at 10:56








          • 1




            Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 11:06


















          8














          We find



          $$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$



          $$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$



          since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 9:13










          • @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
            – anon
            Apr 28 '15 at 10:56








          • 1




            Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
















          8












          8








          8






          We find



          $$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$



          $$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$



          since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).






          share|cite|improve this answer














          We find



          $$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$



          $$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$



          since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Apr 28 '15 at 10:55

























          answered Mar 22 '13 at 21:08









          anon

          71.8k5108211




          71.8k5108211












          • Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 9:13










          • @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
            – anon
            Apr 28 '15 at 10:56








          • 1




            Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 11:06




















          • Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 9:13










          • @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
            – anon
            Apr 28 '15 at 10:56








          • 1




            Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
            – A.P.
            Apr 28 '15 at 11:06


















          Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
          – A.P.
          Apr 28 '15 at 9:13




          Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
          – A.P.
          Apr 28 '15 at 9:13












          @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
          – anon
          Apr 28 '15 at 10:56






          @A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
          – anon
          Apr 28 '15 at 10:56






          1




          1




          Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
          – A.P.
          Apr 28 '15 at 11:06






          Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
          – A.P.
          Apr 28 '15 at 11:06













          2














          A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.




          We obtain for integers $x>0$
          begin{align*}
          color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
          &=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
          &=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
          &,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
          end{align*}

          and the claim follows.




          Comment:




          • In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.


          • In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.


          • In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.


          • In (4) we exchange the order of the series.


          • In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.


          • In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • +1. It's a nice job.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 4:07






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 5:11










          • I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 16:22






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 16:29
















          2














          A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.




          We obtain for integers $x>0$
          begin{align*}
          color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
          &=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
          &=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
          &,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
          end{align*}

          and the claim follows.




          Comment:




          • In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.


          • In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.


          • In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.


          • In (4) we exchange the order of the series.


          • In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.


          • In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • +1. It's a nice job.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 4:07






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 5:11










          • I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 16:22






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 16:29














          2












          2








          2






          A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.




          We obtain for integers $x>0$
          begin{align*}
          color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
          &=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
          &=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
          &,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
          end{align*}

          and the claim follows.




          Comment:




          • In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.


          • In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.


          • In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.


          • In (4) we exchange the order of the series.


          • In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.


          • In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.




          We obtain for integers $x>0$
          begin{align*}
          color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
          &=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
          &=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
          &=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
          &,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
          end{align*}

          and the claim follows.




          Comment:




          • In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.


          • In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.


          • In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.


          • In (4) we exchange the order of the series.


          • In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.


          • In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.








          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 1 at 22:10









          Markus Scheuer

          60k455143




          60k455143












          • +1. It's a nice job.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 4:07






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 5:11










          • I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 16:22






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 16:29


















          • +1. It's a nice job.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 4:07






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 5:11










          • I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
            – Felix Marin
            Dec 11 at 16:22






          • 1




            @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
            – Markus Scheuer
            Dec 11 at 16:29
















          +1. It's a nice job.
          – Felix Marin
          Dec 11 at 4:07




          +1. It's a nice job.
          – Felix Marin
          Dec 11 at 4:07




          1




          1




          @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
          – Markus Scheuer
          Dec 11 at 5:11




          @FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
          – Markus Scheuer
          Dec 11 at 5:11












          I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
          – Felix Marin
          Dec 11 at 16:22




          I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
          – Felix Marin
          Dec 11 at 16:22




          1




          1




          @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
          – Markus Scheuer
          Dec 11 at 16:29




          @FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
          – Markus Scheuer
          Dec 11 at 16:29


















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