Understanding a very elementary property of factorials
I've seen this stated in a few places.
If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$
It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.
Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?
Thanks very much.
number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial
add a comment |
I've seen this stated in a few places.
If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$
It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.
Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?
Thanks very much.
number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial
add a comment |
I've seen this stated in a few places.
If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$
It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.
Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?
Thanks very much.
number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial
I've seen this stated in a few places.
If $$vartheta(x) = sum_{ple{x}} log (p) qquad psi(x) = sum_{m=1}^{infty}varthetaleft(sqrt[m]{x}right)$$ Then $$log(x!) = sum_{m=1}^{infty} psileft(frac{x}{m}right).$$
It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.
Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?
Thanks very much.
number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial
number-theory analytic-number-theory factorial
edited Mar 22 '13 at 21:31
anon
71.8k5108211
71.8k5108211
asked Mar 22 '13 at 20:57
Larry Freeman
3,23421239
3,23421239
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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We find
$$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$
$$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$
since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
add a comment |
A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.
We obtain for integers $x>0$
begin{align*}
color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
&=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
&,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
end{align*}
and the claim follows.
Comment:
In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.
In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.
In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.
In (4) we exchange the order of the series.
In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.
In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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We find
$$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$
$$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$
since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
add a comment |
We find
$$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$
$$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$
since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
add a comment |
We find
$$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$
$$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$
since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).
We find
$$sum_{mge1}psileft(frac{x}{m}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}varthetaleft(sqrt[k]{frac{x}{m}}right)=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{ple sqrt[k]{x/m}}log p$$
$$=sum_{mge1}sum_{kge1}sum_{mp^kle x}log p=log prod_{ple x}p^{#{(m,k):mp^kle x}}=log x!$$
since when counting $#{(m,k):mp^kle x}$, one sees for every $1le nle x$ there are $t=v_p(n)$ different tuples $(m,t),(mp,t-1),cdots,(mp^{t-1},1)$ counted in the set (note $kge1$).
edited Apr 28 '15 at 10:55
answered Mar 22 '13 at 21:08
anon
71.8k5108211
71.8k5108211
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
add a comment |
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
Could you please expand a bit on your last paragraph? It looks to me like you're counting only the pairs $(m,v_p(n))$ with $m = 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 9:13
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
@A.P. Sorry, it's been two years so I don't quite remember what went wrong, but I suspect my brain might have went dark when typing out what I saw in my head. I've edited to give the correct list of tuples corresponding to each $1le nle x$. Basically, compute the sizes of the fibers of the obvious map ${(m,k):mp^kle x}to{n:1le nle x}$ given by $(m,k)mapsto mp^k$ then sum the fibers' sizes.
– anon
Apr 28 '15 at 10:56
1
1
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
Thank you, now I understand. It still took me a while to parse your wording, so for the benefit of other here is how I see it: for every positive integer $n$ there are exactly $v_p(n)$ ways of writing $n$ as $m p^t$ with $m in Bbb{Z}$ and $t geq 1$.
– A.P.
Apr 28 '15 at 11:06
add a comment |
A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.
We obtain for integers $x>0$
begin{align*}
color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
&=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
&,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
end{align*}
and the claim follows.
Comment:
In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.
In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.
In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.
In (4) we exchange the order of the series.
In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.
In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
add a comment |
A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.
We obtain for integers $x>0$
begin{align*}
color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
&=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
&,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
end{align*}
and the claim follows.
Comment:
In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.
In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.
In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.
In (4) we exchange the order of the series.
In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.
In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
add a comment |
A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.
We obtain for integers $x>0$
begin{align*}
color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
&=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
&,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
end{align*}
and the claim follows.
Comment:
In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.
In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.
In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.
In (4) we exchange the order of the series.
In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.
In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.
A slightly different variation based upon the prime factorisation of $x!$.
We obtain for integers $x>0$
begin{align*}
color{blue}{log x!}&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor+leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor+cdots}tag{1}\
&=logprod_{pleq x}p^{sum_{m=1}^inftyleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor}tag{2}\
&=sum_{pleq x}sum_{m=1}^inftylog pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{3}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log pleftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloortag{4}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log psum_{j=1}^{x/p^m}1tag{5}\
&=sum_{m=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^xsum_{pleq sqrt[m]{x}}log ptag{6}\
&,,color{blue}{=sum_{j=1}^xpsileft(frac{x}{j}right)}
end{align*}
and the claim follows.
Comment:
In (1) we do the prime factorisation of $x!$ and observe that $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p}rightrfloor$ counts the numbers $leq x$ which are a multiple of $p$. Since we also have to add $1$ for each number which is a multiple of $p^2$ we add $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^2}rightrfloor$, etc.
In (2) we use the series notation. Note the series is finite.
In (3) we use properties of the logarithm.
In (4) we exchange the order of the series.
In (5) we write the factor $leftlfloorfrac{x}{p^m}rightrfloor$ as sum.
In (6) we exchange the order of the series again.
answered Dec 1 at 22:10
Markus Scheuer
60k455143
60k455143
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
add a comment |
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
+1. It's a nice job.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 4:07
1
1
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
@FelixMarin: Thanks Felix. This answer follows a proof which was given by E. Landau in 1909.
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 5:11
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
I didn't know that. Thanks because everyday we learn something new.
– Felix Marin
Dec 11 at 16:22
1
1
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
@FelixMarin: You're welcome. The same holds true for me. :-)
– Markus Scheuer
Dec 11 at 16:29
add a comment |
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