If $f : Bbb{C} to Bbb{C}$ is entire, then $|f^{(n)}(0)| < n! n^n$ for some $n in Bbb{N}$












3














I'm trying to solve a problem that I can't seem to work out.




$f$ is an entire function. Prove that $|f^{(n)}(0)|< n!n^n$ for at least 1 $n$.




I've been thinking to use the Cauchy estimates somehow but there's no reason for me to believe that $f$ is bounded from above.



Any help is appreciated.










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    3














    I'm trying to solve a problem that I can't seem to work out.




    $f$ is an entire function. Prove that $|f^{(n)}(0)|< n!n^n$ for at least 1 $n$.




    I've been thinking to use the Cauchy estimates somehow but there's no reason for me to believe that $f$ is bounded from above.



    Any help is appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      3












      3








      3







      I'm trying to solve a problem that I can't seem to work out.




      $f$ is an entire function. Prove that $|f^{(n)}(0)|< n!n^n$ for at least 1 $n$.




      I've been thinking to use the Cauchy estimates somehow but there's no reason for me to believe that $f$ is bounded from above.



      Any help is appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I'm trying to solve a problem that I can't seem to work out.




      $f$ is an entire function. Prove that $|f^{(n)}(0)|< n!n^n$ for at least 1 $n$.




      I've been thinking to use the Cauchy estimates somehow but there's no reason for me to believe that $f$ is bounded from above.



      Any help is appreciated.







      complex-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 3 '18 at 7:35

























      asked Dec 3 '18 at 6:54









      Pjames

      162




      162






















          2 Answers
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          4














          Hint: Try proving it by contradiction. Suppose $|f^{(n)}(0)| geq n! n^n$ for all $n in Bbb{N}$. You are given that $f$ is entire. Can you say anything about the radius of convergence of $f$ around $0$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            2














            Let $M = sup { |f(z)| : |z| = 1}$. Since $f$ is entire, for all $n ge 0$, we have



            $$f^{(n)}(0) = frac{n!}{2pi i}int_{|z|=1} frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}dz$$
            Whenever $n > max{ 1, M }$, this leads to
            $$|f^{(n)}(0)| le frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} |f(z)| |dz| le
            frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} M |dz| = n!M
            < n! n < n!n^n
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              4














              Hint: Try proving it by contradiction. Suppose $|f^{(n)}(0)| geq n! n^n$ for all $n in Bbb{N}$. You are given that $f$ is entire. Can you say anything about the radius of convergence of $f$ around $0$?






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                4














                Hint: Try proving it by contradiction. Suppose $|f^{(n)}(0)| geq n! n^n$ for all $n in Bbb{N}$. You are given that $f$ is entire. Can you say anything about the radius of convergence of $f$ around $0$?






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  4












                  4








                  4






                  Hint: Try proving it by contradiction. Suppose $|f^{(n)}(0)| geq n! n^n$ for all $n in Bbb{N}$. You are given that $f$ is entire. Can you say anything about the radius of convergence of $f$ around $0$?






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Hint: Try proving it by contradiction. Suppose $|f^{(n)}(0)| geq n! n^n$ for all $n in Bbb{N}$. You are given that $f$ is entire. Can you say anything about the radius of convergence of $f$ around $0$?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 3 '18 at 6:59









                  Brahadeesh

                  6,11742361




                  6,11742361























                      2














                      Let $M = sup { |f(z)| : |z| = 1}$. Since $f$ is entire, for all $n ge 0$, we have



                      $$f^{(n)}(0) = frac{n!}{2pi i}int_{|z|=1} frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}dz$$
                      Whenever $n > max{ 1, M }$, this leads to
                      $$|f^{(n)}(0)| le frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} |f(z)| |dz| le
                      frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} M |dz| = n!M
                      < n! n < n!n^n
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        2














                        Let $M = sup { |f(z)| : |z| = 1}$. Since $f$ is entire, for all $n ge 0$, we have



                        $$f^{(n)}(0) = frac{n!}{2pi i}int_{|z|=1} frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}dz$$
                        Whenever $n > max{ 1, M }$, this leads to
                        $$|f^{(n)}(0)| le frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} |f(z)| |dz| le
                        frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} M |dz| = n!M
                        < n! n < n!n^n
                        $$






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          2












                          2








                          2






                          Let $M = sup { |f(z)| : |z| = 1}$. Since $f$ is entire, for all $n ge 0$, we have



                          $$f^{(n)}(0) = frac{n!}{2pi i}int_{|z|=1} frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}dz$$
                          Whenever $n > max{ 1, M }$, this leads to
                          $$|f^{(n)}(0)| le frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} |f(z)| |dz| le
                          frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} M |dz| = n!M
                          < n! n < n!n^n
                          $$






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Let $M = sup { |f(z)| : |z| = 1}$. Since $f$ is entire, for all $n ge 0$, we have



                          $$f^{(n)}(0) = frac{n!}{2pi i}int_{|z|=1} frac{f(z)}{z^{n+1}}dz$$
                          Whenever $n > max{ 1, M }$, this leads to
                          $$|f^{(n)}(0)| le frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} |f(z)| |dz| le
                          frac{n!}{2pi} int_{|z|=1} M |dz| = n!M
                          < n! n < n!n^n
                          $$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 3 '18 at 7:20









                          achille hui

                          95.4k5130256




                          95.4k5130256






























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