Non-inductive, not combinatorial proof of $sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$












7














I've seen the identity $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ used here recently.



I checked for proofs here http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Sum_of_Squares_of_Binomial_Coefficients



I couldn't have figured out the combinatorial proof by myself, and the inductive proof assumes you already know the answer...



So my question is : do you know how to prove directly through computation that $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ ?










share|cite|improve this question





























    7














    I've seen the identity $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ used here recently.



    I checked for proofs here http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Sum_of_Squares_of_Binomial_Coefficients



    I couldn't have figured out the combinatorial proof by myself, and the inductive proof assumes you already know the answer...



    So my question is : do you know how to prove directly through computation that $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ ?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      7












      7








      7


      1





      I've seen the identity $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ used here recently.



      I checked for proofs here http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Sum_of_Squares_of_Binomial_Coefficients



      I couldn't have figured out the combinatorial proof by myself, and the inductive proof assumes you already know the answer...



      So my question is : do you know how to prove directly through computation that $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ ?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I've seen the identity $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ used here recently.



      I checked for proofs here http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Sum_of_Squares_of_Binomial_Coefficients



      I couldn't have figured out the combinatorial proof by myself, and the inductive proof assumes you already know the answer...



      So my question is : do you know how to prove directly through computation that $displaystyle sum_{i mathop = 0}^n binom n i^2 = binom {2 n} n$ ?







      combinatorics binomial-coefficients






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited May 13 '14 at 15:44









      WLOG

      7,21932258




      7,21932258










      asked May 13 '14 at 15:13









      Gabriel RomonGabriel Romon

      17.8k53284




      17.8k53284






















          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

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          14














          Consider the identity $(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n$. By the binomial theorem we have $displaystyle(1+x)^n=sum_{k=0}^n{nchoose k} x^k$, so multiplying out we compute the right hand side as $displaystyle(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n = sum_{k=0}^{2n}left(sum_{j=0}^k{nchoose j}{nchoose k-j}x^kright)$. But the LHS is just $displaystyle(1+x)^{2n} = sum_{k=0}^{2n}{2nchoose k}x^k$; equating coefficients of $x^n$ we get $displaystyle{2nchoose n}=sum_{j=0}^n {nchoose j}{nchoose n-j}$. Finally, using the identity ${nchoose j}={nchoose n-j}$ gives the desired result.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
            – Steven Stadnicki
            May 13 '14 at 15:16










          • (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
            – Arthur
            May 13 '14 at 15:16












          • @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
            – lab bhattacharjee
            May 13 '14 at 15:26












          • @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
            – Gabriel Romon
            May 13 '14 at 15:29










          • I fail to see how this is a proof.
            – Superbus
            May 13 '14 at 15:55



















          8














          lab bhattacharjee has given the proof, but it is worth pointing out that this formula is simply an application of the Vandermonde convolution, which says that



          $$sum_{j=0}^k binom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j} = binom{n+m}{k}.$$



          Setting $n=m=k$ and noting that $binom{n}{n-j}=binom{n}{j}$ gives the result.



          EDIT: By the way, for a slightly non-standard (but purely technical, as you require) proof of the Vandermonde convolution, let $X_1,cdots,X_{n+m}$ be independent Bernoulli distributed RV's with parameter $p=1/2$. Then, $S_{n+m}=sum_{j=0}^{n+m}X_j$ has binomial distribution $P[S_{n+m}=k]=binom{n+m}{k}(frac{1}{2})^{n+m}$. Applying the ordinary discrete convolution formula for probability distributions yields



          $$(1/2)^{n+m}binom{n+m}{k}=P[S_{n+m}=k]=sum_{j=0}^k P[S_n=j]P[S_m=k-j]=(1/2)^{n+m}sum_{j=0}^kbinom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer































            8














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            ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{This method is a "direct calculation" which is very}}}$
            ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ convenient when we don't know the answer and, in addition,}}}$
            ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ we don't have to guess combinations of Newton binomials.}}}$



            It's based in the identity:




            $$
            {m choose s}
            =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{s + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
            $$




            begin{align}
            &bbox[10px,#ffd]{sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}^{2}} =
            sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}
            oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over
            z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
            \[5mm] = &
            oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
            sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}pars{1 over z}^{k}
            ,{dd z over 2piic}
            \[3mm]&=oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
            pars{1 + {1 over z}}^{n},{dd z over 2piic}
            =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{2n} over z^{n + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
            \[5mm] = &
            bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{2n choose n}
            end{align}






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
              – chs21259
              Jul 8 '14 at 2:12












            • @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
              – Dan Z
              Jul 8 '14 at 2:39










            • @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
              – chs21259
              Jul 8 '14 at 2:40



















            1














            You're after a sum of a hypergeometric term. There are general techniques for finding closed forms or proving that they don't exist. See e.g. the book A = B, or MathWorld's description of Sister Celine's method, Gosper's algorithm, and Zeilberger's algorithm.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              -1














              Note that we can divide the $2n$ objects in $2$ groups including $n$ elements each.



              Then to choose $n$ elements out of $2n$ we can choose $0$ objects in the first group and $n$ in the second, or $1$ in the first and $n-1$ in the second and so on, i.e $$binom{2n}{n} = sum_{i = 0}^{2n}binom{n}{i}binom{n}{n-i} =sum_{i = 0}^{2n}{binom{n}{i}}^2 $$






              share|cite|improve this answer

















              • 3




                This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                – Batman
                May 13 '14 at 17:43











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              5 Answers
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              5 Answers
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              14














              Consider the identity $(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n$. By the binomial theorem we have $displaystyle(1+x)^n=sum_{k=0}^n{nchoose k} x^k$, so multiplying out we compute the right hand side as $displaystyle(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n = sum_{k=0}^{2n}left(sum_{j=0}^k{nchoose j}{nchoose k-j}x^kright)$. But the LHS is just $displaystyle(1+x)^{2n} = sum_{k=0}^{2n}{2nchoose k}x^k$; equating coefficients of $x^n$ we get $displaystyle{2nchoose n}=sum_{j=0}^n {nchoose j}{nchoose n-j}$. Finally, using the identity ${nchoose j}={nchoose n-j}$ gives the desired result.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
                – Steven Stadnicki
                May 13 '14 at 15:16










              • (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
                – Arthur
                May 13 '14 at 15:16












              • @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
                – lab bhattacharjee
                May 13 '14 at 15:26












              • @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
                – Gabriel Romon
                May 13 '14 at 15:29










              • I fail to see how this is a proof.
                – Superbus
                May 13 '14 at 15:55
















              14














              Consider the identity $(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n$. By the binomial theorem we have $displaystyle(1+x)^n=sum_{k=0}^n{nchoose k} x^k$, so multiplying out we compute the right hand side as $displaystyle(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n = sum_{k=0}^{2n}left(sum_{j=0}^k{nchoose j}{nchoose k-j}x^kright)$. But the LHS is just $displaystyle(1+x)^{2n} = sum_{k=0}^{2n}{2nchoose k}x^k$; equating coefficients of $x^n$ we get $displaystyle{2nchoose n}=sum_{j=0}^n {nchoose j}{nchoose n-j}$. Finally, using the identity ${nchoose j}={nchoose n-j}$ gives the desired result.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
                – Steven Stadnicki
                May 13 '14 at 15:16










              • (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
                – Arthur
                May 13 '14 at 15:16












              • @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
                – lab bhattacharjee
                May 13 '14 at 15:26












              • @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
                – Gabriel Romon
                May 13 '14 at 15:29










              • I fail to see how this is a proof.
                – Superbus
                May 13 '14 at 15:55














              14












              14








              14






              Consider the identity $(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n$. By the binomial theorem we have $displaystyle(1+x)^n=sum_{k=0}^n{nchoose k} x^k$, so multiplying out we compute the right hand side as $displaystyle(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n = sum_{k=0}^{2n}left(sum_{j=0}^k{nchoose j}{nchoose k-j}x^kright)$. But the LHS is just $displaystyle(1+x)^{2n} = sum_{k=0}^{2n}{2nchoose k}x^k$; equating coefficients of $x^n$ we get $displaystyle{2nchoose n}=sum_{j=0}^n {nchoose j}{nchoose n-j}$. Finally, using the identity ${nchoose j}={nchoose n-j}$ gives the desired result.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              Consider the identity $(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n$. By the binomial theorem we have $displaystyle(1+x)^n=sum_{k=0}^n{nchoose k} x^k$, so multiplying out we compute the right hand side as $displaystyle(1+x)^ncdot(1+x)^n = sum_{k=0}^{2n}left(sum_{j=0}^k{nchoose j}{nchoose k-j}x^kright)$. But the LHS is just $displaystyle(1+x)^{2n} = sum_{k=0}^{2n}{2nchoose k}x^k$; equating coefficients of $x^n$ we get $displaystyle{2nchoose n}=sum_{j=0}^n {nchoose j}{nchoose n-j}$. Finally, using the identity ${nchoose j}={nchoose n-j}$ gives the desired result.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited May 13 '14 at 17:41









              Steven Stadnicki

              41k867122




              41k867122










              answered May 13 '14 at 15:15









              lab bhattacharjeelab bhattacharjee

              223k15156274




              223k15156274












              • (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
                – Steven Stadnicki
                May 13 '14 at 15:16










              • (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
                – Arthur
                May 13 '14 at 15:16












              • @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
                – lab bhattacharjee
                May 13 '14 at 15:26












              • @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
                – Gabriel Romon
                May 13 '14 at 15:29










              • I fail to see how this is a proof.
                – Superbus
                May 13 '14 at 15:55


















              • (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
                – Steven Stadnicki
                May 13 '14 at 15:16










              • (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
                – Arthur
                May 13 '14 at 15:16












              • @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
                – lab bhattacharjee
                May 13 '14 at 15:26












              • @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
                – Gabriel Romon
                May 13 '14 at 15:29










              • I fail to see how this is a proof.
                – Superbus
                May 13 '14 at 15:55
















              (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
              – Steven Stadnicki
              May 13 '14 at 15:16




              (and use the identity that $nchoose i$=$nchoose n-i$)
              – Steven Stadnicki
              May 13 '14 at 15:16












              (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
              – Arthur
              May 13 '14 at 15:16






              (Using the binomial formula, of course.)
              – Arthur
              May 13 '14 at 15:16














              @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
              – lab bhattacharjee
              May 13 '14 at 15:26






              @StevenStadnicki, With the current version, we don't need that Identity
              – lab bhattacharjee
              May 13 '14 at 15:26














              @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
              – Gabriel Romon
              May 13 '14 at 15:29




              @labbhattacharjee I think you do need it after Cauchy product.
              – Gabriel Romon
              May 13 '14 at 15:29












              I fail to see how this is a proof.
              – Superbus
              May 13 '14 at 15:55




              I fail to see how this is a proof.
              – Superbus
              May 13 '14 at 15:55











              8














              lab bhattacharjee has given the proof, but it is worth pointing out that this formula is simply an application of the Vandermonde convolution, which says that



              $$sum_{j=0}^k binom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j} = binom{n+m}{k}.$$



              Setting $n=m=k$ and noting that $binom{n}{n-j}=binom{n}{j}$ gives the result.



              EDIT: By the way, for a slightly non-standard (but purely technical, as you require) proof of the Vandermonde convolution, let $X_1,cdots,X_{n+m}$ be independent Bernoulli distributed RV's with parameter $p=1/2$. Then, $S_{n+m}=sum_{j=0}^{n+m}X_j$ has binomial distribution $P[S_{n+m}=k]=binom{n+m}{k}(frac{1}{2})^{n+m}$. Applying the ordinary discrete convolution formula for probability distributions yields



              $$(1/2)^{n+m}binom{n+m}{k}=P[S_{n+m}=k]=sum_{j=0}^k P[S_n=j]P[S_m=k-j]=(1/2)^{n+m}sum_{j=0}^kbinom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j}.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer




























                8














                lab bhattacharjee has given the proof, but it is worth pointing out that this formula is simply an application of the Vandermonde convolution, which says that



                $$sum_{j=0}^k binom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j} = binom{n+m}{k}.$$



                Setting $n=m=k$ and noting that $binom{n}{n-j}=binom{n}{j}$ gives the result.



                EDIT: By the way, for a slightly non-standard (but purely technical, as you require) proof of the Vandermonde convolution, let $X_1,cdots,X_{n+m}$ be independent Bernoulli distributed RV's with parameter $p=1/2$. Then, $S_{n+m}=sum_{j=0}^{n+m}X_j$ has binomial distribution $P[S_{n+m}=k]=binom{n+m}{k}(frac{1}{2})^{n+m}$. Applying the ordinary discrete convolution formula for probability distributions yields



                $$(1/2)^{n+m}binom{n+m}{k}=P[S_{n+m}=k]=sum_{j=0}^k P[S_n=j]P[S_m=k-j]=(1/2)^{n+m}sum_{j=0}^kbinom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j}.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  8












                  8








                  8






                  lab bhattacharjee has given the proof, but it is worth pointing out that this formula is simply an application of the Vandermonde convolution, which says that



                  $$sum_{j=0}^k binom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j} = binom{n+m}{k}.$$



                  Setting $n=m=k$ and noting that $binom{n}{n-j}=binom{n}{j}$ gives the result.



                  EDIT: By the way, for a slightly non-standard (but purely technical, as you require) proof of the Vandermonde convolution, let $X_1,cdots,X_{n+m}$ be independent Bernoulli distributed RV's with parameter $p=1/2$. Then, $S_{n+m}=sum_{j=0}^{n+m}X_j$ has binomial distribution $P[S_{n+m}=k]=binom{n+m}{k}(frac{1}{2})^{n+m}$. Applying the ordinary discrete convolution formula for probability distributions yields



                  $$(1/2)^{n+m}binom{n+m}{k}=P[S_{n+m}=k]=sum_{j=0}^k P[S_n=j]P[S_m=k-j]=(1/2)^{n+m}sum_{j=0}^kbinom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j}.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  lab bhattacharjee has given the proof, but it is worth pointing out that this formula is simply an application of the Vandermonde convolution, which says that



                  $$sum_{j=0}^k binom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j} = binom{n+m}{k}.$$



                  Setting $n=m=k$ and noting that $binom{n}{n-j}=binom{n}{j}$ gives the result.



                  EDIT: By the way, for a slightly non-standard (but purely technical, as you require) proof of the Vandermonde convolution, let $X_1,cdots,X_{n+m}$ be independent Bernoulli distributed RV's with parameter $p=1/2$. Then, $S_{n+m}=sum_{j=0}^{n+m}X_j$ has binomial distribution $P[S_{n+m}=k]=binom{n+m}{k}(frac{1}{2})^{n+m}$. Applying the ordinary discrete convolution formula for probability distributions yields



                  $$(1/2)^{n+m}binom{n+m}{k}=P[S_{n+m}=k]=sum_{j=0}^k P[S_n=j]P[S_m=k-j]=(1/2)^{n+m}sum_{j=0}^kbinom{n}{j}binom{m}{k-j}.$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited May 13 '14 at 16:06

























                  answered May 13 '14 at 15:29









                  mathsemathse

                  2,012513




                  2,012513























                      8














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                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ we don't have to guess combinations of Newton binomials.}}}$



                      It's based in the identity:




                      $$
                      {m choose s}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{s + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      $$




                      begin{align}
                      &bbox[10px,#ffd]{sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}^{2}} =
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over
                      z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}pars{1 over z}^{k}
                      ,{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[3mm]&=oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      pars{1 + {1 over z}}^{n},{dd z over 2piic}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{2n} over z^{n + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{2n choose n}
                      end{align}






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:12












                      • @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                        – Dan Z
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:39










                      • @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:40
















                      8














                      $newcommand{+}{^{dagger}}
                      newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle, #1 ,rightrangle}
                      newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace, #1 ,rightrbrace}
                      newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack, #1 ,rightrbrack}
                      newcommand{ceil}[1]{,leftlceil, #1 ,rightrceil,}
                      newcommand{dd}{{rm d}}
                      newcommand{down}{downarrow}
                      newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
                      newcommand{expo}[1]{,{rm e}^{#1},}
                      newcommand{fermi}{,{rm f}}
                      newcommand{floor}[1]{,leftlfloor #1 rightrfloor,}
                      newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
                      newcommand{ic}{{rm i}}
                      newcommand{iff}{Longleftrightarrow}
                      newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
                      newcommand{isdiv}{,left.rightvert,}
                      newcommand{ket}[1]{leftvert #1rightrangle}
                      newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
                      newcommand{pars}[1]{left(, #1 ,right)}
                      newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{pp}{{cal P}}
                      newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{vphantom{large A},#2,},}
                      newcommand{sech}{,{rm sech}}
                      newcommand{sgn}{,{rm sgn}}
                      newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{{rm d}^{#1} #2}{{rm d} #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{ul}[1]{underline{#1}}
                      newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert, #1 ,rightvert}
                      newcommand{wt}[1]{widetilde{#1}}$

                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{This method is a "direct calculation" which is very}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ convenient when we don't know the answer and, in addition,}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ we don't have to guess combinations of Newton binomials.}}}$



                      It's based in the identity:




                      $$
                      {m choose s}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{s + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      $$




                      begin{align}
                      &bbox[10px,#ffd]{sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}^{2}} =
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over
                      z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}pars{1 over z}^{k}
                      ,{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[3mm]&=oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      pars{1 + {1 over z}}^{n},{dd z over 2piic}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{2n} over z^{n + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{2n choose n}
                      end{align}






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:12












                      • @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                        – Dan Z
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:39










                      • @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:40














                      8












                      8








                      8






                      $newcommand{+}{^{dagger}}
                      newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle, #1 ,rightrangle}
                      newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace, #1 ,rightrbrace}
                      newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack, #1 ,rightrbrack}
                      newcommand{ceil}[1]{,leftlceil, #1 ,rightrceil,}
                      newcommand{dd}{{rm d}}
                      newcommand{down}{downarrow}
                      newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
                      newcommand{expo}[1]{,{rm e}^{#1},}
                      newcommand{fermi}{,{rm f}}
                      newcommand{floor}[1]{,leftlfloor #1 rightrfloor,}
                      newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
                      newcommand{ic}{{rm i}}
                      newcommand{iff}{Longleftrightarrow}
                      newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
                      newcommand{isdiv}{,left.rightvert,}
                      newcommand{ket}[1]{leftvert #1rightrangle}
                      newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
                      newcommand{pars}[1]{left(, #1 ,right)}
                      newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{pp}{{cal P}}
                      newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{vphantom{large A},#2,},}
                      newcommand{sech}{,{rm sech}}
                      newcommand{sgn}{,{rm sgn}}
                      newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{{rm d}^{#1} #2}{{rm d} #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{ul}[1]{underline{#1}}
                      newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert, #1 ,rightvert}
                      newcommand{wt}[1]{widetilde{#1}}$

                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{This method is a "direct calculation" which is very}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ convenient when we don't know the answer and, in addition,}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ we don't have to guess combinations of Newton binomials.}}}$



                      It's based in the identity:




                      $$
                      {m choose s}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{s + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      $$




                      begin{align}
                      &bbox[10px,#ffd]{sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}^{2}} =
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over
                      z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}pars{1 over z}^{k}
                      ,{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[3mm]&=oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      pars{1 + {1 over z}}^{n},{dd z over 2piic}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{2n} over z^{n + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{2n choose n}
                      end{align}






                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      $newcommand{+}{^{dagger}}
                      newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle, #1 ,rightrangle}
                      newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace, #1 ,rightrbrace}
                      newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack, #1 ,rightrbrack}
                      newcommand{ceil}[1]{,leftlceil, #1 ,rightrceil,}
                      newcommand{dd}{{rm d}}
                      newcommand{down}{downarrow}
                      newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
                      newcommand{expo}[1]{,{rm e}^{#1},}
                      newcommand{fermi}{,{rm f}}
                      newcommand{floor}[1]{,leftlfloor #1 rightrfloor,}
                      newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
                      newcommand{ic}{{rm i}}
                      newcommand{iff}{Longleftrightarrow}
                      newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
                      newcommand{isdiv}{,left.rightvert,}
                      newcommand{ket}[1]{leftvert #1rightrangle}
                      newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
                      newcommand{pars}[1]{left(, #1 ,right)}
                      newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{pp}{{cal P}}
                      newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{vphantom{large A},#2,},}
                      newcommand{sech}{,{rm sech}}
                      newcommand{sgn}{,{rm sgn}}
                      newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{{rm d}^{#1} #2}{{rm d} #3^{#1}}}
                      newcommand{ul}[1]{underline{#1}}
                      newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert, #1 ,rightvert}
                      newcommand{wt}[1]{widetilde{#1}}$

                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{This method is a "direct calculation" which is very}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ convenient when we don't know the answer and, in addition,}}}$
                      ${ttcolor{#f00}{mbox{ we don't have to guess combinations of Newton binomials.}}}$



                      It's based in the identity:




                      $$
                      {m choose s}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{s + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      $$




                      begin{align}
                      &bbox[10px,#ffd]{sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}^{2}} =
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over
                      z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      sum_{k = 0}^{n}{n choose k}pars{1 over z}^{k}
                      ,{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[3mm]&=oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n} over z}
                      pars{1 + {1 over z}}^{n},{dd z over 2piic}
                      =oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{2n} over z^{n + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}
                      \[5mm] = &
                      bbox[10px,border:1px groove navy]{2n choose n}
                      end{align}







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Dec 4 '18 at 20:02

























                      answered Jul 8 '14 at 1:19









                      Felix MarinFelix Marin

                      67.3k7107141




                      67.3k7107141












                      • very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:12












                      • @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                        – Dan Z
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:39










                      • @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:40


















                      • very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:12












                      • @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                        – Dan Z
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:39










                      • @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                        – chs21259
                        Jul 8 '14 at 2:40
















                      very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                      – chs21259
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:12






                      very cool, any tip on how to show $$sum_{k=0}^{n}binom{n}{k}left(frac{1}{z}right)^k = left(1+frac{1}{z}right)^n?$$
                      – chs21259
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:12














                      @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                      – Dan Z
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:39




                      @chs21259 That follows from the binomial theorem.
                      – Dan Z
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:39












                      @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                      – chs21259
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:40




                      @DanZollers oh wow, duh, thanks Dan
                      – chs21259
                      Jul 8 '14 at 2:40











                      1














                      You're after a sum of a hypergeometric term. There are general techniques for finding closed forms or proving that they don't exist. See e.g. the book A = B, or MathWorld's description of Sister Celine's method, Gosper's algorithm, and Zeilberger's algorithm.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        1














                        You're after a sum of a hypergeometric term. There are general techniques for finding closed forms or proving that they don't exist. See e.g. the book A = B, or MathWorld's description of Sister Celine's method, Gosper's algorithm, and Zeilberger's algorithm.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          1












                          1








                          1






                          You're after a sum of a hypergeometric term. There are general techniques for finding closed forms or proving that they don't exist. See e.g. the book A = B, or MathWorld's description of Sister Celine's method, Gosper's algorithm, and Zeilberger's algorithm.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          You're after a sum of a hypergeometric term. There are general techniques for finding closed forms or proving that they don't exist. See e.g. the book A = B, or MathWorld's description of Sister Celine's method, Gosper's algorithm, and Zeilberger's algorithm.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered May 13 '14 at 15:35









                          Peter TaylorPeter Taylor

                          8,71812241




                          8,71812241























                              -1














                              Note that we can divide the $2n$ objects in $2$ groups including $n$ elements each.



                              Then to choose $n$ elements out of $2n$ we can choose $0$ objects in the first group and $n$ in the second, or $1$ in the first and $n-1$ in the second and so on, i.e $$binom{2n}{n} = sum_{i = 0}^{2n}binom{n}{i}binom{n}{n-i} =sum_{i = 0}^{2n}{binom{n}{i}}^2 $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer

















                              • 3




                                This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                                – Batman
                                May 13 '14 at 17:43
















                              -1














                              Note that we can divide the $2n$ objects in $2$ groups including $n$ elements each.



                              Then to choose $n$ elements out of $2n$ we can choose $0$ objects in the first group and $n$ in the second, or $1$ in the first and $n-1$ in the second and so on, i.e $$binom{2n}{n} = sum_{i = 0}^{2n}binom{n}{i}binom{n}{n-i} =sum_{i = 0}^{2n}{binom{n}{i}}^2 $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer

















                              • 3




                                This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                                – Batman
                                May 13 '14 at 17:43














                              -1












                              -1








                              -1






                              Note that we can divide the $2n$ objects in $2$ groups including $n$ elements each.



                              Then to choose $n$ elements out of $2n$ we can choose $0$ objects in the first group and $n$ in the second, or $1$ in the first and $n-1$ in the second and so on, i.e $$binom{2n}{n} = sum_{i = 0}^{2n}binom{n}{i}binom{n}{n-i} =sum_{i = 0}^{2n}{binom{n}{i}}^2 $$






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              Note that we can divide the $2n$ objects in $2$ groups including $n$ elements each.



                              Then to choose $n$ elements out of $2n$ we can choose $0$ objects in the first group and $n$ in the second, or $1$ in the first and $n-1$ in the second and so on, i.e $$binom{2n}{n} = sum_{i = 0}^{2n}binom{n}{i}binom{n}{n-i} =sum_{i = 0}^{2n}{binom{n}{i}}^2 $$







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered May 13 '14 at 15:43









                              WLOGWLOG

                              7,21932258




                              7,21932258








                              • 3




                                This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                                – Batman
                                May 13 '14 at 17:43














                              • 3




                                This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                                – Batman
                                May 13 '14 at 17:43








                              3




                              3




                              This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                              – Batman
                              May 13 '14 at 17:43




                              This is a combinatorial proof, which is contrary to what OP wanted.
                              – Batman
                              May 13 '14 at 17:43


















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