Let $G$ be a group, and the order of the group $G$, $|G|=r$. For any $x in G$, prove that $x^{-r}=e$ (where...
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1
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Let $G$ be a finite group, and the order of the group $G$, $|G|=r$.
For any $x in G$, prove that $x^{-r}=e$ (where $e$ is a neutral in $G$).
Basically, I haven't tried anything except trying to manipulate the expression $aa^{-1}=e$ into what I'm trying to prove because I really have no idea what to do.
I would appreciate any hint, advice or etc. because I'm new in group theory and the concepts are still hard to understand.
Also, the next part of this task is this:
$G$ is a group such that $|G|=195$. Is there an element $g neq e$ such that $g^{77}=e$?
Thanks in advance!
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $G$ be a finite group, and the order of the group $G$, $|G|=r$.
For any $x in G$, prove that $x^{-r}=e$ (where $e$ is a neutral in $G$).
Basically, I haven't tried anything except trying to manipulate the expression $aa^{-1}=e$ into what I'm trying to prove because I really have no idea what to do.
I would appreciate any hint, advice or etc. because I'm new in group theory and the concepts are still hard to understand.
Also, the next part of this task is this:
$G$ is a group such that $|G|=195$. Is there an element $g neq e$ such that $g^{77}=e$?
Thanks in advance!
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
1
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $G$ be a finite group, and the order of the group $G$, $|G|=r$.
For any $x in G$, prove that $x^{-r}=e$ (where $e$ is a neutral in $G$).
Basically, I haven't tried anything except trying to manipulate the expression $aa^{-1}=e$ into what I'm trying to prove because I really have no idea what to do.
I would appreciate any hint, advice or etc. because I'm new in group theory and the concepts are still hard to understand.
Also, the next part of this task is this:
$G$ is a group such that $|G|=195$. Is there an element $g neq e$ such that $g^{77}=e$?
Thanks in advance!
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
Let $G$ be a finite group, and the order of the group $G$, $|G|=r$.
For any $x in G$, prove that $x^{-r}=e$ (where $e$ is a neutral in $G$).
Basically, I haven't tried anything except trying to manipulate the expression $aa^{-1}=e$ into what I'm trying to prove because I really have no idea what to do.
I would appreciate any hint, advice or etc. because I'm new in group theory and the concepts are still hard to understand.
Also, the next part of this task is this:
$G$ is a group such that $|G|=195$. Is there an element $g neq e$ such that $g^{77}=e$?
Thanks in advance!
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
edited yesterday
asked yesterday
mathbbandstuff
242110
242110
1
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday
add a comment |
1
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday
1
1
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
1
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
1
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday
add a comment |
2 Answers
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up vote
1
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accepted
Suppose $o(x)=d$. This is the same as saying that $o(langle x rangle)=d$. By Lagrange's Theorem (which I assume you know), $d$ divides $r$, so $r/d$ is an integer, call it $m$. Then $x^r = (x^d)^m=e^m=e$.
For the second question: if there is such a $g$, then since $g^{77}=e$, the order of $g$ must be a divisor of $77$ (do you see why?). But, again by Lagrange, the order of $g$ must also divide $195 = |G|$, thus it must also divide $gcd(195,77)=1$. The only element of order $1$ in any group is $e$, which is a contradiction to the assumption that $g neq e$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
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If $g^{77}=1$, then $(g^{77})^2=g^{154}=1$ and $(g^{77})^3=g^{231}=g^{231(mod 195)}=g^{36}=1$.
Notice $195=3*5*13$ and $77=7*11$ so $lcm(77,195)=77*195$ which means $77*a neq 0(mod195)$ for $a<195$. So by applying the above argument, $(g^{77})^{38}=g=1$. So contradiction.
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $o(x)=d$. This is the same as saying that $o(langle x rangle)=d$. By Lagrange's Theorem (which I assume you know), $d$ divides $r$, so $r/d$ is an integer, call it $m$. Then $x^r = (x^d)^m=e^m=e$.
For the second question: if there is such a $g$, then since $g^{77}=e$, the order of $g$ must be a divisor of $77$ (do you see why?). But, again by Lagrange, the order of $g$ must also divide $195 = |G|$, thus it must also divide $gcd(195,77)=1$. The only element of order $1$ in any group is $e$, which is a contradiction to the assumption that $g neq e$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $o(x)=d$. This is the same as saying that $o(langle x rangle)=d$. By Lagrange's Theorem (which I assume you know), $d$ divides $r$, so $r/d$ is an integer, call it $m$. Then $x^r = (x^d)^m=e^m=e$.
For the second question: if there is such a $g$, then since $g^{77}=e$, the order of $g$ must be a divisor of $77$ (do you see why?). But, again by Lagrange, the order of $g$ must also divide $195 = |G|$, thus it must also divide $gcd(195,77)=1$. The only element of order $1$ in any group is $e$, which is a contradiction to the assumption that $g neq e$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $o(x)=d$. This is the same as saying that $o(langle x rangle)=d$. By Lagrange's Theorem (which I assume you know), $d$ divides $r$, so $r/d$ is an integer, call it $m$. Then $x^r = (x^d)^m=e^m=e$.
For the second question: if there is such a $g$, then since $g^{77}=e$, the order of $g$ must be a divisor of $77$ (do you see why?). But, again by Lagrange, the order of $g$ must also divide $195 = |G|$, thus it must also divide $gcd(195,77)=1$. The only element of order $1$ in any group is $e$, which is a contradiction to the assumption that $g neq e$.
Suppose $o(x)=d$. This is the same as saying that $o(langle x rangle)=d$. By Lagrange's Theorem (which I assume you know), $d$ divides $r$, so $r/d$ is an integer, call it $m$. Then $x^r = (x^d)^m=e^m=e$.
For the second question: if there is such a $g$, then since $g^{77}=e$, the order of $g$ must be a divisor of $77$ (do you see why?). But, again by Lagrange, the order of $g$ must also divide $195 = |G|$, thus it must also divide $gcd(195,77)=1$. The only element of order $1$ in any group is $e$, which is a contradiction to the assumption that $g neq e$.
answered yesterday
the_fox
1,9271429
1,9271429
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
If $g^{77}=1$, then $(g^{77})^2=g^{154}=1$ and $(g^{77})^3=g^{231}=g^{231(mod 195)}=g^{36}=1$.
Notice $195=3*5*13$ and $77=7*11$ so $lcm(77,195)=77*195$ which means $77*a neq 0(mod195)$ for $a<195$. So by applying the above argument, $(g^{77})^{38}=g=1$. So contradiction.
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
If $g^{77}=1$, then $(g^{77})^2=g^{154}=1$ and $(g^{77})^3=g^{231}=g^{231(mod 195)}=g^{36}=1$.
Notice $195=3*5*13$ and $77=7*11$ so $lcm(77,195)=77*195$ which means $77*a neq 0(mod195)$ for $a<195$. So by applying the above argument, $(g^{77})^{38}=g=1$. So contradiction.
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
If $g^{77}=1$, then $(g^{77})^2=g^{154}=1$ and $(g^{77})^3=g^{231}=g^{231(mod 195)}=g^{36}=1$.
Notice $195=3*5*13$ and $77=7*11$ so $lcm(77,195)=77*195$ which means $77*a neq 0(mod195)$ for $a<195$. So by applying the above argument, $(g^{77})^{38}=g=1$. So contradiction.
If $g^{77}=1$, then $(g^{77})^2=g^{154}=1$ and $(g^{77})^3=g^{231}=g^{231(mod 195)}=g^{36}=1$.
Notice $195=3*5*13$ and $77=7*11$ so $lcm(77,195)=77*195$ which means $77*a neq 0(mod195)$ for $a<195$. So by applying the above argument, $(g^{77})^{38}=g=1$. So contradiction.
answered yesterday
mathnoob
63511
63511
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
add a comment |
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
Why $(g^{77})^{38}=g$? Sorry if I don't see something basic. Also, do you know how to solve the other problem?
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
1
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Sorry, I used online calculator, because 77 and 38 are inverse of each other in (mod 195). So 77*38=1(mod 195).
– mathnoob
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
Oh, didn't think of that :) Thanks!
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
add a comment |
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1
For your first question, it might help to note that $(x^{-r}) = (x^{-1})^r = (x^r)^{-1}$. Either of those latter equalities, with the definition of order of a group and the fact that each $x in G$ has an inverse, should give you a push forward. I'm not 100% sure how to approach your second question though (don't have the best foundation in this topic), so I'll refrain from commenting on that.
– Eevee Trainer
yesterday
1
You need Lagrange's theorem.
– the_fox
yesterday
I'm not quite sure how to use that @the_fox
– mathbbandstuff
yesterday
1
For the second question, it suffices to observe that none of the factors of 77 divide the order of the group, which is necessary per Lagrange's theorem for a nonzero element to equal 1 when raised to the 77th power.
– Monstrous Moonshiner
yesterday