if derivative vanishes in a path connected set, then $f$ is constant on that set?











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Let $f: mathbb{R}^d to mathbb{R}^m $ be a function sucht that $Df(a) = 0 $ for all $a in U subseteq mathbb{R}^d$. Also, suppose $U$ is open and path-connected.



Question: IS $f$ constant on $U$ ??










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  • I think you don't need $U$ to be open
    – dani_s
    Mar 6 '14 at 10:13










  • @dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
    – user127096
    Mar 8 '14 at 4:35















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2












Let $f: mathbb{R}^d to mathbb{R}^m $ be a function sucht that $Df(a) = 0 $ for all $a in U subseteq mathbb{R}^d$. Also, suppose $U$ is open and path-connected.



Question: IS $f$ constant on $U$ ??










share|cite|improve this question






















  • I think you don't need $U$ to be open
    – dani_s
    Mar 6 '14 at 10:13










  • @dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
    – user127096
    Mar 8 '14 at 4:35













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2






2





Let $f: mathbb{R}^d to mathbb{R}^m $ be a function sucht that $Df(a) = 0 $ for all $a in U subseteq mathbb{R}^d$. Also, suppose $U$ is open and path-connected.



Question: IS $f$ constant on $U$ ??










share|cite|improve this question













Let $f: mathbb{R}^d to mathbb{R}^m $ be a function sucht that $Df(a) = 0 $ for all $a in U subseteq mathbb{R}^d$. Also, suppose $U$ is open and path-connected.



Question: IS $f$ constant on $U$ ??







calculus real-analysis






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asked Mar 3 '14 at 10:44







user130448



















  • I think you don't need $U$ to be open
    – dani_s
    Mar 6 '14 at 10:13










  • @dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
    – user127096
    Mar 8 '14 at 4:35


















  • I think you don't need $U$ to be open
    – dani_s
    Mar 6 '14 at 10:13










  • @dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
    – user127096
    Mar 8 '14 at 4:35
















I think you don't need $U$ to be open
– dani_s
Mar 6 '14 at 10:13




I think you don't need $U$ to be open
– dani_s
Mar 6 '14 at 10:13












@dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
– user127096
Mar 8 '14 at 4:35




@dani_s No, there are counterexamples if you drop the openness. E.g., there is a homeomorphism $f:mathbb R^2tomathbb R^2$ that transforms an arc of snowflake into a line segment, and has zero derivative at every point of the snowflake.
– user127096
Mar 8 '14 at 4:35










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



+25










Here is little more precise answer: Let $a, b in U$ be arbitrary. We are done if we can show $f(a) = f(b)$. Since $U$ is path-connected, we can find a $C^1$-path (obtained from a continuous path by a suitable regularization procedure) $gamma :[0, 1] to U$ from $a$ to $b$. Then



begin{align*}
f(b) -f(a) &= f(gamma(1))- f(gamma (0)) = int_0^1 frac{operatorname{d}}{operatorname{d}t} f(gamma(t)) operatorname{d}t = int_0^1 Df_{gamma(t)} (dot{gamma}(t)) operatorname{d}t = 0,
end{align*}
where we have used the chain rule and $Df =0$. This argument also works if the path is only piecewise $C^1$ by applying it to the segments.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Although for the function of several variables there is no Mean Value Theorem, there is another similar result.




    Suppose $f$ maps a convex open set $E subset mathbb{R}^d$ into
    $mathbb{R}^m$, $f$ is differentiable in $E$, and there is a real
    number $M$ s.t. $left| {f'left( x right)} right| leqslant M$
    for every $x in E$. Then $left| {fleft( a right) - fleft( bright)} right|leqslant Mleft| {a - b} right|$ for all $a,b in E$.




    In this case, we can put $M=0$ since $Df(a) = 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
      – XYZABC
      Dec 2 '17 at 3:32










    • @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
      – Andrés E. Caicedo
      Nov 27 at 12:38


















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes: pick any two points and join them with a piecewise-linear path. On each segment, $f$ is constant, and hence the values at the initial and final points coincide.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
      – ILoveMath
      Mar 6 '14 at 9:26











    Your Answer





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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    +25










    Here is little more precise answer: Let $a, b in U$ be arbitrary. We are done if we can show $f(a) = f(b)$. Since $U$ is path-connected, we can find a $C^1$-path (obtained from a continuous path by a suitable regularization procedure) $gamma :[0, 1] to U$ from $a$ to $b$. Then



    begin{align*}
    f(b) -f(a) &= f(gamma(1))- f(gamma (0)) = int_0^1 frac{operatorname{d}}{operatorname{d}t} f(gamma(t)) operatorname{d}t = int_0^1 Df_{gamma(t)} (dot{gamma}(t)) operatorname{d}t = 0,
    end{align*}
    where we have used the chain rule and $Df =0$. This argument also works if the path is only piecewise $C^1$ by applying it to the segments.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      +25










      Here is little more precise answer: Let $a, b in U$ be arbitrary. We are done if we can show $f(a) = f(b)$. Since $U$ is path-connected, we can find a $C^1$-path (obtained from a continuous path by a suitable regularization procedure) $gamma :[0, 1] to U$ from $a$ to $b$. Then



      begin{align*}
      f(b) -f(a) &= f(gamma(1))- f(gamma (0)) = int_0^1 frac{operatorname{d}}{operatorname{d}t} f(gamma(t)) operatorname{d}t = int_0^1 Df_{gamma(t)} (dot{gamma}(t)) operatorname{d}t = 0,
      end{align*}
      where we have used the chain rule and $Df =0$. This argument also works if the path is only piecewise $C^1$ by applying it to the segments.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        +25







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        +25




        +25




        Here is little more precise answer: Let $a, b in U$ be arbitrary. We are done if we can show $f(a) = f(b)$. Since $U$ is path-connected, we can find a $C^1$-path (obtained from a continuous path by a suitable regularization procedure) $gamma :[0, 1] to U$ from $a$ to $b$. Then



        begin{align*}
        f(b) -f(a) &= f(gamma(1))- f(gamma (0)) = int_0^1 frac{operatorname{d}}{operatorname{d}t} f(gamma(t)) operatorname{d}t = int_0^1 Df_{gamma(t)} (dot{gamma}(t)) operatorname{d}t = 0,
        end{align*}
        where we have used the chain rule and $Df =0$. This argument also works if the path is only piecewise $C^1$ by applying it to the segments.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Here is little more precise answer: Let $a, b in U$ be arbitrary. We are done if we can show $f(a) = f(b)$. Since $U$ is path-connected, we can find a $C^1$-path (obtained from a continuous path by a suitable regularization procedure) $gamma :[0, 1] to U$ from $a$ to $b$. Then



        begin{align*}
        f(b) -f(a) &= f(gamma(1))- f(gamma (0)) = int_0^1 frac{operatorname{d}}{operatorname{d}t} f(gamma(t)) operatorname{d}t = int_0^1 Df_{gamma(t)} (dot{gamma}(t)) operatorname{d}t = 0,
        end{align*}
        where we have used the chain rule and $Df =0$. This argument also works if the path is only piecewise $C^1$ by applying it to the segments.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 6 '14 at 10:08









        Dragoslav

        23816




        23816






















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Although for the function of several variables there is no Mean Value Theorem, there is another similar result.




            Suppose $f$ maps a convex open set $E subset mathbb{R}^d$ into
            $mathbb{R}^m$, $f$ is differentiable in $E$, and there is a real
            number $M$ s.t. $left| {f'left( x right)} right| leqslant M$
            for every $x in E$. Then $left| {fleft( a right) - fleft( bright)} right|leqslant Mleft| {a - b} right|$ for all $a,b in E$.




            In this case, we can put $M=0$ since $Df(a) = 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
              – XYZABC
              Dec 2 '17 at 3:32










            • @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
              – Andrés E. Caicedo
              Nov 27 at 12:38















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Although for the function of several variables there is no Mean Value Theorem, there is another similar result.




            Suppose $f$ maps a convex open set $E subset mathbb{R}^d$ into
            $mathbb{R}^m$, $f$ is differentiable in $E$, and there is a real
            number $M$ s.t. $left| {f'left( x right)} right| leqslant M$
            for every $x in E$. Then $left| {fleft( a right) - fleft( bright)} right|leqslant Mleft| {a - b} right|$ for all $a,b in E$.




            In this case, we can put $M=0$ since $Df(a) = 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
              – XYZABC
              Dec 2 '17 at 3:32










            • @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
              – Andrés E. Caicedo
              Nov 27 at 12:38













            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            Although for the function of several variables there is no Mean Value Theorem, there is another similar result.




            Suppose $f$ maps a convex open set $E subset mathbb{R}^d$ into
            $mathbb{R}^m$, $f$ is differentiable in $E$, and there is a real
            number $M$ s.t. $left| {f'left( x right)} right| leqslant M$
            for every $x in E$. Then $left| {fleft( a right) - fleft( bright)} right|leqslant Mleft| {a - b} right|$ for all $a,b in E$.




            In this case, we can put $M=0$ since $Df(a) = 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Although for the function of several variables there is no Mean Value Theorem, there is another similar result.




            Suppose $f$ maps a convex open set $E subset mathbb{R}^d$ into
            $mathbb{R}^m$, $f$ is differentiable in $E$, and there is a real
            number $M$ s.t. $left| {f'left( x right)} right| leqslant M$
            for every $x in E$. Then $left| {fleft( a right) - fleft( bright)} right|leqslant Mleft| {a - b} right|$ for all $a,b in E$.




            In this case, we can put $M=0$ since $Df(a) = 0$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 6 '14 at 9:52









            Junefi

            1103




            1103












            • But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
              – XYZABC
              Dec 2 '17 at 3:32










            • @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
              – Andrés E. Caicedo
              Nov 27 at 12:38


















            • But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
              – XYZABC
              Dec 2 '17 at 3:32










            • @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
              – Andrés E. Caicedo
              Nov 27 at 12:38
















            But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
            – XYZABC
            Dec 2 '17 at 3:32




            But here the domain need not be convex so you can not apply mean value theorem.
            – XYZABC
            Dec 2 '17 at 3:32












            @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
            – Andrés E. Caicedo
            Nov 27 at 12:38




            @XYZABC It doesn't matter, since the argument works locally: it works in any open ball contained in the domain $U$. Since $U$ is connected, that $f$ is locally constant implies that it is constant.
            – Andrés E. Caicedo
            Nov 27 at 12:38










            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Yes: pick any two points and join them with a piecewise-linear path. On each segment, $f$ is constant, and hence the values at the initial and final points coincide.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
              – ILoveMath
              Mar 6 '14 at 9:26















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Yes: pick any two points and join them with a piecewise-linear path. On each segment, $f$ is constant, and hence the values at the initial and final points coincide.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
              – ILoveMath
              Mar 6 '14 at 9:26













            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Yes: pick any two points and join them with a piecewise-linear path. On each segment, $f$ is constant, and hence the values at the initial and final points coincide.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Yes: pick any two points and join them with a piecewise-linear path. On each segment, $f$ is constant, and hence the values at the initial and final points coincide.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Mar 3 '14 at 10:50









            Siminore

            30.2k23368




            30.2k23368












            • Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
              – ILoveMath
              Mar 6 '14 at 9:26


















            • Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
              – ILoveMath
              Mar 6 '14 at 9:26
















            Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
            – ILoveMath
            Mar 6 '14 at 9:26




            Can you explain a little bit more your answer?
            – ILoveMath
            Mar 6 '14 at 9:26


















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