Clarification on why this integral is divergent?
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$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$
Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$
However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.
To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?
calculus integration definite-integrals
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$
Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$
However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.
To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?
calculus integration definite-integrals
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As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
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– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$
Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$
However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.
To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?
calculus integration definite-integrals
$endgroup$
$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$
Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$
However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.
To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?
calculus integration definite-integrals
calculus integration definite-integrals
edited Dec 9 '18 at 22:50
Moo
5,53131020
5,53131020
asked Dec 9 '18 at 21:49
pylabpylab
103
103
$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
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It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
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– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
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@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
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– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
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By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
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– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
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@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
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– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
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Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
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– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
add a comment |
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No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges
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add a comment |
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It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.
To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.
$int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$
Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.
So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.
Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.
Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:
$int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$
You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,
$frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.
The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
3
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It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
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– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
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@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
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– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
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By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
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Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
$begingroup$
Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$
$endgroup$
It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$
answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:03
GenericMathematicianGenericMathematician
863
863
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
$begingroup$
Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
$begingroup$
Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
@pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
$endgroup$
– pylab
Dec 9 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
$begingroup$
@pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
$endgroup$
– GenericMathematician
Dec 9 '18 at 22:39
$begingroup$
Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges
$endgroup$
No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges
answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:06
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
156k22125227
156k22125227
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.
To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.
$int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$
Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.
So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.
Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.
Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:
$int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$
You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,
$frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.
The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.
To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.
$int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$
Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.
So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.
Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.
Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:
$int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$
You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,
$frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.
The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.
$endgroup$
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$begingroup$
It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.
To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.
$int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$
Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.
So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.
Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.
Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:
$int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$
You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,
$frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.
The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.
$endgroup$
It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.
To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.
$int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$
Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.
So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.
Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.
Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:
$int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$
You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,
$frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.
The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.
answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:48
Shubham JohriShubham Johri
4,990717
4,990717
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add a comment |
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$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53