Incorrect Solution for Problem 7 of Pinter's Book of Abstract Algebra, Chapter 2?












5














I'm just getting started with Pinter's A Book of Abstract Algebra, please be kind. The book solution for Chapter 2, Problem 7 claims that the following operator is non-associative:



$$ x * y = frac{xy}{x+y+1}$$



The book solution:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{xyz(x+y+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) = frac{xyz(y+z+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



However the $(x+y+1)$ and $(y+z+1)$ terms appear to actually cancel out:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} $$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) =frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x+frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} $$



So the denominators cancel out, the two groupings are equivalent, the operator is associative. This result is duplicated in Mathematica, but I'd like to make sure I'm not missing something. Sorry for bothering people with such a basic question.










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  • 1




    On which set is $*$ defined?
    – Rebecca J. Stones
    Jan 26 '14 at 0:35










  • There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
    – André Nicolas
    Jan 26 '14 at 1:36










  • @Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
    – bjsdaiyu
    Jan 27 '14 at 1:37
















5














I'm just getting started with Pinter's A Book of Abstract Algebra, please be kind. The book solution for Chapter 2, Problem 7 claims that the following operator is non-associative:



$$ x * y = frac{xy}{x+y+1}$$



The book solution:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{xyz(x+y+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) = frac{xyz(y+z+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



However the $(x+y+1)$ and $(y+z+1)$ terms appear to actually cancel out:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} $$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) =frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x+frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} $$



So the denominators cancel out, the two groupings are equivalent, the operator is associative. This result is duplicated in Mathematica, but I'd like to make sure I'm not missing something. Sorry for bothering people with such a basic question.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    On which set is $*$ defined?
    – Rebecca J. Stones
    Jan 26 '14 at 0:35










  • There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
    – André Nicolas
    Jan 26 '14 at 1:36










  • @Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
    – bjsdaiyu
    Jan 27 '14 at 1:37














5












5








5







I'm just getting started with Pinter's A Book of Abstract Algebra, please be kind. The book solution for Chapter 2, Problem 7 claims that the following operator is non-associative:



$$ x * y = frac{xy}{x+y+1}$$



The book solution:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{xyz(x+y+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) = frac{xyz(y+z+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



However the $(x+y+1)$ and $(y+z+1)$ terms appear to actually cancel out:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} $$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) =frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x+frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} $$



So the denominators cancel out, the two groupings are equivalent, the operator is associative. This result is duplicated in Mathematica, but I'd like to make sure I'm not missing something. Sorry for bothering people with such a basic question.










share|cite|improve this question















I'm just getting started with Pinter's A Book of Abstract Algebra, please be kind. The book solution for Chapter 2, Problem 7 claims that the following operator is non-associative:



$$ x * y = frac{xy}{x+y+1}$$



The book solution:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{xyz(x+y+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) = frac{xyz(y+z+1)}{x+y+z+xy+yz+xz+1}$$



However the $(x+y+1)$ and $(y+z+1)$ terms appear to actually cancel out:



$$ (x * y) * z = left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z = frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} $$



$$ x * (y * z) = x * left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) =frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x+frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} $$



So the denominators cancel out, the two groupings are equivalent, the operator is associative. This result is duplicated in Mathematica, but I'd like to make sure I'm not missing something. Sorry for bothering people with such a basic question.







abstract-algebra






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edited Jan 25 '14 at 23:54









TMM

9,11032848




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asked Jan 25 '14 at 23:45









bjsdaiyu

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  • 1




    On which set is $*$ defined?
    – Rebecca J. Stones
    Jan 26 '14 at 0:35










  • There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
    – André Nicolas
    Jan 26 '14 at 1:36










  • @Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
    – bjsdaiyu
    Jan 27 '14 at 1:37














  • 1




    On which set is $*$ defined?
    – Rebecca J. Stones
    Jan 26 '14 at 0:35










  • There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
    – André Nicolas
    Jan 26 '14 at 1:36










  • @Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
    – bjsdaiyu
    Jan 27 '14 at 1:37








1




1




On which set is $*$ defined?
– Rebecca J. Stones
Jan 26 '14 at 0:35




On which set is $*$ defined?
– Rebecca J. Stones
Jan 26 '14 at 0:35












There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
– André Nicolas
Jan 26 '14 at 1:36




There is no cancellation. It is more pleasant to work with numbers, like $1,1,2$.
– André Nicolas
Jan 26 '14 at 1:36












@Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
– bjsdaiyu
Jan 27 '14 at 1:37




@Rebecca the set is $x > 0$. $o(1,o(1,2))$ and $o(o(1,1),2)$ ("o" being the operator function) give the same value of 1/5... sure looks like there's cancellation to me.
– bjsdaiyu
Jan 27 '14 at 1:37










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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4














As far as I can tell it's associative. You've proved it twice yourself already, but my nitty-gritty arithmetic is:



begin{align*}
(x * y) * z &= left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z \
&= frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} \
&= frac{left(frac{xyz}{x+y+1}right)}{frac{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)}{x+y+1}} \
&= frac{xyz}{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)} \
&= frac{xyz}{xy+xz+yz+x+y+z+1} \
&= frac{xyz}{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)} \
&= frac{left(frac{xyz}{y+z+1}right)}{frac{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)}{y+z+1}} \
&= frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x + frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} \
&= x*left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) \
&= x*(y*z).
end{align*}






share|cite|improve this answer





























    4














    Let $f(x)=1+frac 1x$. Then $f^{-1}(z)=frac{1}{z-1}$ and show that:



    $$x*y = f^{-1}(f(x) f(y))$$



    This means that:



    $$begin{align}(x*y)*z &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))* z\
    &= f^{-1}left(fleft(f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))right)f(z)right)\
    &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)f(z))
    end{align}$$



    Since $*$ is commutative, we get:



    $$begin{align}x*(y*z)&= (y*z)*x\
    &= f^{-1}(f(y)f(z)f(x))
    end{align}$$



    Clearly, these two are equal.



    This is true in general for any invertible function $f$ if we define $*$ in this way.



    Most easily defined associative operators on the real numbers are of this form. Even addition can be defined this way in terms of multiplication, with $f(x)=e^x$ and $f^{-1}(x)=log x$, then:



    $$x+y = log(e^xe^y)$$



    Alternatively, of course, you can define positive multiplication in terms of addition:



    $$xy = e^{log x + log y}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer































      1














      Define $a = x^{-1}$, $b = y^{-1}$, and $c = z^{-1}$. Furthermore, let $d = (x*y)^{-1}$. Then it is easy to see that $$d = (1+a)(1+b) - 1.$$ Then $$((x*y)*z)^{-1} = (d^{-1}*c^{-1})^{-1} = (1+d)(1+c)-1 = (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)-1.$$ Being that this is a symmetric function in $a,b,c$, it immediately follows that $*$ is associative.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        3 Answers
        3






        active

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        3 Answers
        3






        active

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        active

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        active

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        4














        As far as I can tell it's associative. You've proved it twice yourself already, but my nitty-gritty arithmetic is:



        begin{align*}
        (x * y) * z &= left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z \
        &= frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} \
        &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{x+y+1}right)}{frac{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)}{x+y+1}} \
        &= frac{xyz}{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)} \
        &= frac{xyz}{xy+xz+yz+x+y+z+1} \
        &= frac{xyz}{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)} \
        &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{y+z+1}right)}{frac{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)}{y+z+1}} \
        &= frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x + frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} \
        &= x*left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) \
        &= x*(y*z).
        end{align*}






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          4














          As far as I can tell it's associative. You've proved it twice yourself already, but my nitty-gritty arithmetic is:



          begin{align*}
          (x * y) * z &= left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z \
          &= frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} \
          &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{x+y+1}right)}{frac{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)}{x+y+1}} \
          &= frac{xyz}{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)} \
          &= frac{xyz}{xy+xz+yz+x+y+z+1} \
          &= frac{xyz}{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)} \
          &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{y+z+1}right)}{frac{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)}{y+z+1}} \
          &= frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x + frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} \
          &= x*left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) \
          &= x*(y*z).
          end{align*}






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            4












            4








            4






            As far as I can tell it's associative. You've proved it twice yourself already, but my nitty-gritty arithmetic is:



            begin{align*}
            (x * y) * z &= left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z \
            &= frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} \
            &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{x+y+1}right)}{frac{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)}{x+y+1}} \
            &= frac{xyz}{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)} \
            &= frac{xyz}{xy+xz+yz+x+y+z+1} \
            &= frac{xyz}{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)} \
            &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{y+z+1}right)}{frac{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)}{y+z+1}} \
            &= frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x + frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} \
            &= x*left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) \
            &= x*(y*z).
            end{align*}






            share|cite|improve this answer












            As far as I can tell it's associative. You've proved it twice yourself already, but my nitty-gritty arithmetic is:



            begin{align*}
            (x * y) * z &= left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right) * z \
            &= frac{left(frac{xy}{x+y+1}right)z}{frac{xy}{x+y+1} + z + 1} \
            &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{x+y+1}right)}{frac{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)}{x+y+1}} \
            &= frac{xyz}{xy+(z+1)(x+y+1)} \
            &= frac{xyz}{xy+xz+yz+x+y+z+1} \
            &= frac{xyz}{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)} \
            &= frac{left(frac{xyz}{y+z+1}right)}{frac{yz+(x+1)(y+z+1)}{y+z+1}} \
            &= frac{xleft(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right)}{x + frac{yz}{y+z+1} + 1} \
            &= x*left(frac{yz}{y+z+1}right) \
            &= x*(y*z).
            end{align*}







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 27 '14 at 2:25









            Rebecca J. Stones

            20.9k22781




            20.9k22781























                4














                Let $f(x)=1+frac 1x$. Then $f^{-1}(z)=frac{1}{z-1}$ and show that:



                $$x*y = f^{-1}(f(x) f(y))$$



                This means that:



                $$begin{align}(x*y)*z &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))* z\
                &= f^{-1}left(fleft(f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))right)f(z)right)\
                &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)f(z))
                end{align}$$



                Since $*$ is commutative, we get:



                $$begin{align}x*(y*z)&= (y*z)*x\
                &= f^{-1}(f(y)f(z)f(x))
                end{align}$$



                Clearly, these two are equal.



                This is true in general for any invertible function $f$ if we define $*$ in this way.



                Most easily defined associative operators on the real numbers are of this form. Even addition can be defined this way in terms of multiplication, with $f(x)=e^x$ and $f^{-1}(x)=log x$, then:



                $$x+y = log(e^xe^y)$$



                Alternatively, of course, you can define positive multiplication in terms of addition:



                $$xy = e^{log x + log y}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer




























                  4














                  Let $f(x)=1+frac 1x$. Then $f^{-1}(z)=frac{1}{z-1}$ and show that:



                  $$x*y = f^{-1}(f(x) f(y))$$



                  This means that:



                  $$begin{align}(x*y)*z &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))* z\
                  &= f^{-1}left(fleft(f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))right)f(z)right)\
                  &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)f(z))
                  end{align}$$



                  Since $*$ is commutative, we get:



                  $$begin{align}x*(y*z)&= (y*z)*x\
                  &= f^{-1}(f(y)f(z)f(x))
                  end{align}$$



                  Clearly, these two are equal.



                  This is true in general for any invertible function $f$ if we define $*$ in this way.



                  Most easily defined associative operators on the real numbers are of this form. Even addition can be defined this way in terms of multiplication, with $f(x)=e^x$ and $f^{-1}(x)=log x$, then:



                  $$x+y = log(e^xe^y)$$



                  Alternatively, of course, you can define positive multiplication in terms of addition:



                  $$xy = e^{log x + log y}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    4












                    4








                    4






                    Let $f(x)=1+frac 1x$. Then $f^{-1}(z)=frac{1}{z-1}$ and show that:



                    $$x*y = f^{-1}(f(x) f(y))$$



                    This means that:



                    $$begin{align}(x*y)*z &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))* z\
                    &= f^{-1}left(fleft(f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))right)f(z)right)\
                    &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)f(z))
                    end{align}$$



                    Since $*$ is commutative, we get:



                    $$begin{align}x*(y*z)&= (y*z)*x\
                    &= f^{-1}(f(y)f(z)f(x))
                    end{align}$$



                    Clearly, these two are equal.



                    This is true in general for any invertible function $f$ if we define $*$ in this way.



                    Most easily defined associative operators on the real numbers are of this form. Even addition can be defined this way in terms of multiplication, with $f(x)=e^x$ and $f^{-1}(x)=log x$, then:



                    $$x+y = log(e^xe^y)$$



                    Alternatively, of course, you can define positive multiplication in terms of addition:



                    $$xy = e^{log x + log y}$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Let $f(x)=1+frac 1x$. Then $f^{-1}(z)=frac{1}{z-1}$ and show that:



                    $$x*y = f^{-1}(f(x) f(y))$$



                    This means that:



                    $$begin{align}(x*y)*z &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))* z\
                    &= f^{-1}left(fleft(f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))right)f(z)right)\
                    &= f^{-1}(f(x)f(y)f(z))
                    end{align}$$



                    Since $*$ is commutative, we get:



                    $$begin{align}x*(y*z)&= (y*z)*x\
                    &= f^{-1}(f(y)f(z)f(x))
                    end{align}$$



                    Clearly, these two are equal.



                    This is true in general for any invertible function $f$ if we define $*$ in this way.



                    Most easily defined associative operators on the real numbers are of this form. Even addition can be defined this way in terms of multiplication, with $f(x)=e^x$ and $f^{-1}(x)=log x$, then:



                    $$x+y = log(e^xe^y)$$



                    Alternatively, of course, you can define positive multiplication in terms of addition:



                    $$xy = e^{log x + log y}$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Aug 23 '14 at 18:43

























                    answered Aug 23 '14 at 17:59









                    Thomas Andrews

                    130k11146297




                    130k11146297























                        1














                        Define $a = x^{-1}$, $b = y^{-1}$, and $c = z^{-1}$. Furthermore, let $d = (x*y)^{-1}$. Then it is easy to see that $$d = (1+a)(1+b) - 1.$$ Then $$((x*y)*z)^{-1} = (d^{-1}*c^{-1})^{-1} = (1+d)(1+c)-1 = (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)-1.$$ Being that this is a symmetric function in $a,b,c$, it immediately follows that $*$ is associative.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          1














                          Define $a = x^{-1}$, $b = y^{-1}$, and $c = z^{-1}$. Furthermore, let $d = (x*y)^{-1}$. Then it is easy to see that $$d = (1+a)(1+b) - 1.$$ Then $$((x*y)*z)^{-1} = (d^{-1}*c^{-1})^{-1} = (1+d)(1+c)-1 = (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)-1.$$ Being that this is a symmetric function in $a,b,c$, it immediately follows that $*$ is associative.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            1












                            1








                            1






                            Define $a = x^{-1}$, $b = y^{-1}$, and $c = z^{-1}$. Furthermore, let $d = (x*y)^{-1}$. Then it is easy to see that $$d = (1+a)(1+b) - 1.$$ Then $$((x*y)*z)^{-1} = (d^{-1}*c^{-1})^{-1} = (1+d)(1+c)-1 = (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)-1.$$ Being that this is a symmetric function in $a,b,c$, it immediately follows that $*$ is associative.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Define $a = x^{-1}$, $b = y^{-1}$, and $c = z^{-1}$. Furthermore, let $d = (x*y)^{-1}$. Then it is easy to see that $$d = (1+a)(1+b) - 1.$$ Then $$((x*y)*z)^{-1} = (d^{-1}*c^{-1})^{-1} = (1+d)(1+c)-1 = (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)-1.$$ Being that this is a symmetric function in $a,b,c$, it immediately follows that $*$ is associative.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 27 '14 at 2:55









                            heropup

                            62.5k66099




                            62.5k66099






























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