True or false( invertibility of $f$)












0












$begingroup$


Let $f$ : $(1,10)$ $to$ $[2,11]$

be a continuous function, then , $f$ cannot be an invertible function.



True/false



Both domain and codomain has same cardinality so we can find a bijection between both sets.
But, the statement is true. What property is used in this problem?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $f$ : $(1,10)$ $to$ $[2,11]$

    be a continuous function, then , $f$ cannot be an invertible function.



    True/false



    Both domain and codomain has same cardinality so we can find a bijection between both sets.
    But, the statement is true. What property is used in this problem?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0


      0



      $begingroup$


      Let $f$ : $(1,10)$ $to$ $[2,11]$

      be a continuous function, then , $f$ cannot be an invertible function.



      True/false



      Both domain and codomain has same cardinality so we can find a bijection between both sets.
      But, the statement is true. What property is used in this problem?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $f$ : $(1,10)$ $to$ $[2,11]$

      be a continuous function, then , $f$ cannot be an invertible function.



      True/false



      Both domain and codomain has same cardinality so we can find a bijection between both sets.
      But, the statement is true. What property is used in this problem?







      calculus






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 7 '18 at 9:55







      Mathsaddict

















      asked Dec 7 '18 at 8:45









      MathsaddictMathsaddict

      2998




      2998






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          If it is a bijection then the inverse would be continuous too and range of the inverse, which is $(0,10)$ would be compact because continuous image of compact sets is compact, This is a contradiction. [A continuous bijection is strictly monotonic and this makes the inverse also monotonic and continuous].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 7 '18 at 8:55










          • $begingroup$
            It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 7 '18 at 9:04











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          oldest

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          active

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          $begingroup$

          If it is a bijection then the inverse would be continuous too and range of the inverse, which is $(0,10)$ would be compact because continuous image of compact sets is compact, This is a contradiction. [A continuous bijection is strictly monotonic and this makes the inverse also monotonic and continuous].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 7 '18 at 8:55










          • $begingroup$
            It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 7 '18 at 9:04
















          2












          $begingroup$

          If it is a bijection then the inverse would be continuous too and range of the inverse, which is $(0,10)$ would be compact because continuous image of compact sets is compact, This is a contradiction. [A continuous bijection is strictly monotonic and this makes the inverse also monotonic and continuous].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 7 '18 at 8:55










          • $begingroup$
            It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 7 '18 at 9:04














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          If it is a bijection then the inverse would be continuous too and range of the inverse, which is $(0,10)$ would be compact because continuous image of compact sets is compact, This is a contradiction. [A continuous bijection is strictly monotonic and this makes the inverse also monotonic and continuous].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If it is a bijection then the inverse would be continuous too and range of the inverse, which is $(0,10)$ would be compact because continuous image of compact sets is compact, This is a contradiction. [A continuous bijection is strictly monotonic and this makes the inverse also monotonic and continuous].







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 '18 at 8:50









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          53.5k32055




          53.5k32055












          • $begingroup$
            @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 7 '18 at 8:55










          • $begingroup$
            It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 7 '18 at 9:04


















          • $begingroup$
            @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 7 '18 at 8:55










          • $begingroup$
            It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mathsaddict
            Dec 7 '18 at 9:04
















          $begingroup$
          @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 7 '18 at 8:55




          $begingroup$
          @WilliamSun Continuous bijections on the real line are known to have continuous inverses automatically. I am assuming this result with a hint that this can b e proved using monotonicity.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 7 '18 at 8:55












          $begingroup$
          It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – Mathsaddict
          Dec 7 '18 at 9:04




          $begingroup$
          It was very simple to under.stand. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – Mathsaddict
          Dec 7 '18 at 9:04


















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