What do brackets mean for mod operation?












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I'm solving equation 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b)(mod 10). I tried to use wolframalpha and it gives me answer b = 3. But if I remove brackets around mod 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10 it makes a plot, and doesn't give me any real answer. I have no idea how to solve this without guessing the b. So I assume there is some meaning behind those brackets?










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  • $begingroup$
    You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks guys. I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – sashaaero
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:35
















2












$begingroup$


I'm solving equation 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b)(mod 10). I tried to use wolframalpha and it gives me answer b = 3. But if I remove brackets around mod 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10 it makes a plot, and doesn't give me any real answer. I have no idea how to solve this without guessing the b. So I assume there is some meaning behind those brackets?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks guys. I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – sashaaero
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:35














2












2








2





$begingroup$


I'm solving equation 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b)(mod 10). I tried to use wolframalpha and it gives me answer b = 3. But if I remove brackets around mod 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10 it makes a plot, and doesn't give me any real answer. I have no idea how to solve this without guessing the b. So I assume there is some meaning behind those brackets?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm solving equation 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b)(mod 10). I tried to use wolframalpha and it gives me answer b = 3. But if I remove brackets around mod 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10 it makes a plot, and doesn't give me any real answer. I have no idea how to solve this without guessing the b. So I assume there is some meaning behind those brackets?







modules






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asked Dec 5 '18 at 23:13









sashaaerosashaaero

1325




1325












  • $begingroup$
    You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks guys. I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – sashaaero
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:35


















  • $begingroup$
    You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:30










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks guys. I got it.
    $endgroup$
    – sashaaero
    Dec 5 '18 at 23:35
















$begingroup$
You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 5 '18 at 23:30




$begingroup$
You do get the solution just further down on the page. I do not know why the programs chose to program it so that if you type it without the brackets it will plot a graph and it won't if you include the brackets. But mathematically it does the same.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 5 '18 at 23:30












$begingroup$
Thanks guys. I got it.
$endgroup$
– sashaaero
Dec 5 '18 at 23:35




$begingroup$
Thanks guys. I got it.
$endgroup$
– sashaaero
Dec 5 '18 at 23:35










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

With the brackets it means:
$$5 equiv (6 cdot 8 + 9 cdot b) pmod{10}$$
It means that every value from $0$ to $9$ is considered an equivalence class. (Note that $LaTeX$ has a special directive for it: pmod.)



You'll see that Wolfram shows this interpretation in its solution:




Solution in the least residue system modulo 10:




$b=3$





which is usually written as $bequiv 3 pmod{10}$.
See Modular Arithmetic for more information.



Without the brackets, Wolfram also gives a solution at the bottom, but now it gives all integer solutions.




Integer solution:




$b=10n+3, nin mathbb Z$








share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Okay.



    $pmod n$ means we are doing modulo arithmetic on equivalence classes.



    $5 equiv (6*8 + 9*b)pmod {10}$ means to find which modulo class $b$ belongs to.



    Perhaps a less confusing notation is $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$. The $pmod {10}$ isn't something you do. It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in. And we can solve it:



    $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$



    $5 equiv_{10} 48 + 9b$



    $5 equiv_{10} 8 + (-1)b$



    $-3equiv_{10} -b$



    $3 equiv_{10} b$



    $b equiv 3 pmod {10}$.



    And without the parenthesis it means the similar but entirely different "gimme the remainder" operation in the "universe" of regualar old arithetic.



    $5 = (6*8 + 9b) mod 10$ means.



    The remainder of $(6*8+9b)div 10$ is $5$



    So $48 + 9b = 10n + 5$ for some number $n$



    $9b = -43 + 10n$



    $9b = 27 + 10(n-6)$



    $b = 3 + 10frac {n-6}9$ for some integer $frac {n-6}9$. We don't actually care what $n$ is. Just that be if $b= 3 + 10k$ we will get that remainder.



    So Wolfram is programmed to solve those in different manners. Even though in practice the results are very very similar.



    Note: $5 = 6*8 + 9b mod 10$ would be different.



    $-43 = (9b mod 10)$ but $0 le 9b mod 10 < 10$ and that can't be $-43$ so this has no solutions. (Whereas $5 = (6*8 + 9b)mod 10$ has infinite solutions and $5 equiv 6*8 + 9b pmod{10}$ has one solution that is an equivalence class that represents infinitely many equivalent integers.)






    share|cite|improve this answer









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    • $begingroup$
      I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Dec 6 '18 at 0:01












    • $begingroup$
      9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
      $endgroup$
      – sashaaero
      Dec 6 '18 at 0:04










    • $begingroup$
      "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
      $endgroup$
      – fleablood
      Dec 6 '18 at 1:13












    • $begingroup$
      $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
      $endgroup$
      – fleablood
      Dec 6 '18 at 1:15










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Dec 6 '18 at 1:32





















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    There is some confusion here, due to two the use and abuse of various related concepts



    1. Congruences and modular arithmetic



    You say the integers $a$ and $b$ are congruent modulo $m$ (a positive integer) iff $m$ divide $a-b$ and you write $aequiv bpmod{m}$ (and the divisibility relation is written $m,|,a-b$). In LaTeX, aequiv bpmod{m}.



    Congruences have a number of nice properties that you can find on Wikipédia and in many books of elementary number theory.



    For instance, if $aequiv bpmod{m}$ and $cequiv dpmod{m}$, then $a+cequiv b+dpmod{m}$ and $acequiv bdpmod{m}$. And $equiv$ is an equivalence relation.



    Modular arithmetic is said to "wrap around", because if $aequiv bpmod{m}$, then $a+kmequiv bpmod{m}$ for all integers $k$.



    And given an integer $a$ you can always find a unique integer $rin{0,dots m-1}$ such that $aequiv rpmod{m}$. This $r$ has a precise meaning: $r$ is the remainder in the euclidean division of $a$ by $m$. And the relation $aequiv bpmod{m}$ actually means that $a$ and $b$ give the same remainder when divided by $m$.



    2. Rings, ideals and quotients



    Given the ring of integers $Bbb Z$, any ideal has the form $mBbb Z$ (it contains the multiples of some positive integer $m$) and you can consider the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. The quotient ring is a ring on the set of classes of integers defined by the equivalence relation $sim$, on $Bbb Z$, defined by $asim b$ if $a-bin mBbb Z$. You should see the similarity with $m,|,a-b$. Historically congruences came before rings and quotient rings, but congruences are actually a special case, and you can do that in any ring as long as you have an ideal and build the quotient ring.



    Given the ring $Bbb Z$ and the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$, you then have a canonical homomorphism $p:Bbb ZtoBbb Z/mBbb Z$ that maps any inteer $a$ to its class in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$.



    Then you can prove that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$. More generally, in an arbitrary ring, and given an ideal $frak a$, you can define $aequiv bpmod{frak a}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$.



    As you can see, all of this looks more abstract than congruences, but it's a very similar concept in disguise.



    Additionally, the notation for $p(a)$ can vary. It's sometimes written $cl(a)$, or even $dot a$. For instance, with $m=3$, there are $3$ congruence classes, ${3k,/,kinBbb Z}$, ${3k+1,/,kinBbb Z}$ and ${3k+2,/,kinBbb Z}$. Each one can be denoted by any element of the class, for instance $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z={cl(27),cl(82),cl(-1)}$, but it's common to use a unique representative element, and it's natural to take the $r$ defined earlier, that is the remainder in the euclidean division. Here the elements of $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z$ would be written $dot0,dot1,dot2$. When the context is clear enough, it's a common abuse of notation to write simply $0,1,2$, but I think the temptation should be resisted.



    3. Computer science



    Congruences are very useful but sometimes you want a notation for the actual remainder. Programming languages all have a way to denote the remainder, with an additional caveat. Pascal and Ada use a mod b, C and C-like languages use a%b, and notations such as mod(a,b) or rem(a,b) is not uncommon. However, languages have various interpretations on what the result is when $a$ or $b$ is negative, see this.



    There is a recent tendency, especially in discrete mathematics and computer science, to define the operator $amod b$ to be the remainder in the euclidean division. It's also possible to extend the definition to arbitrary real numbers $a,b$ (with $bne0$), and this also exists for floating-point arithmetic in programming languages.



    For integers $a,b$, $amod b$ is thus an integer, and for real $a,b$ it's a real.



    Now, there is again a similarity with $aequiv bpmod m$. Specifically, if $0le b<m$, then $b=amod m$ (read $b=(amod m)$ if your are in doubt). Likewise, you have always $aequiv (amod m) pmod{m}$.



    4. And $a=b pmod m$?



    This is a notation I would not advocate. I believe it's mainly used to mean the same as $aequiv bpmod m$, but it's misleading: it's not really an equality, the $pmod m$ part is crucial here. Or it could mean an equality in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. Since it's not entirely clear what is meant, and it's too similar to $a=bmod m$ (where $mathrm{mod}$ is the operator), I think it's a bad idea to use it.



    5. WolframAlpha's strange plot.



    You have now everything to understand why WolframAlpha is adding a plot when going from 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) (mod 10) to 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10. The former is a congruence and is used only with integers. The latter is an operator that can be defined on reals. In the plot, WolframAlpha is just showing how it interprets $5mod10$ and $(9b+48)mod 10$: the intersection is where there is equality.



    6. How do you solve this equation?



    Your equation can be written $5equiv 9b+48pmod{10}$.



    Since $5equiv5pmod{10}$, your equation is equivalent to $0equiv 9b+43pmod{10}$ (remember you can subtract two congruences with the same modulus).



    Since $bequiv bpmod{10}$ your equation is equivalent to $bequiv 10b+43pmod{10}$.



    Finally since you don't change the congruence by adding or subtracting a multiple of the modulus ($10$), your equation is equivalent to



    $$bequiv3 pmod{10}$$



    That is, the set of solutions is the set of integers such that $10,|,b-3$, which means $b=10k+3$ for some integer $k$. The set of solution is thus ${10k+3,/,kinBbb Z}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
      $endgroup$
      – I like Serena
      Dec 6 '18 at 22:41










    • $begingroup$
      I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
      $endgroup$
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Dec 6 '18 at 22:50












    • $begingroup$
      Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
      $endgroup$
      – I like Serena
      Dec 7 '18 at 1:34












    • $begingroup$
      @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
      $endgroup$
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Dec 7 '18 at 7:21












    • $begingroup$
      Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
      $endgroup$
      – I like Serena
      Dec 7 '18 at 14:43













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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    1












    $begingroup$

    With the brackets it means:
    $$5 equiv (6 cdot 8 + 9 cdot b) pmod{10}$$
    It means that every value from $0$ to $9$ is considered an equivalence class. (Note that $LaTeX$ has a special directive for it: pmod.)



    You'll see that Wolfram shows this interpretation in its solution:




    Solution in the least residue system modulo 10:




    $b=3$





    which is usually written as $bequiv 3 pmod{10}$.
    See Modular Arithmetic for more information.



    Without the brackets, Wolfram also gives a solution at the bottom, but now it gives all integer solutions.




    Integer solution:




    $b=10n+3, nin mathbb Z$








    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      With the brackets it means:
      $$5 equiv (6 cdot 8 + 9 cdot b) pmod{10}$$
      It means that every value from $0$ to $9$ is considered an equivalence class. (Note that $LaTeX$ has a special directive for it: pmod.)



      You'll see that Wolfram shows this interpretation in its solution:




      Solution in the least residue system modulo 10:




      $b=3$





      which is usually written as $bequiv 3 pmod{10}$.
      See Modular Arithmetic for more information.



      Without the brackets, Wolfram also gives a solution at the bottom, but now it gives all integer solutions.




      Integer solution:




      $b=10n+3, nin mathbb Z$








      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        With the brackets it means:
        $$5 equiv (6 cdot 8 + 9 cdot b) pmod{10}$$
        It means that every value from $0$ to $9$ is considered an equivalence class. (Note that $LaTeX$ has a special directive for it: pmod.)



        You'll see that Wolfram shows this interpretation in its solution:




        Solution in the least residue system modulo 10:




        $b=3$





        which is usually written as $bequiv 3 pmod{10}$.
        See Modular Arithmetic for more information.



        Without the brackets, Wolfram also gives a solution at the bottom, but now it gives all integer solutions.




        Integer solution:




        $b=10n+3, nin mathbb Z$








        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        With the brackets it means:
        $$5 equiv (6 cdot 8 + 9 cdot b) pmod{10}$$
        It means that every value from $0$ to $9$ is considered an equivalence class. (Note that $LaTeX$ has a special directive for it: pmod.)



        You'll see that Wolfram shows this interpretation in its solution:




        Solution in the least residue system modulo 10:




        $b=3$





        which is usually written as $bequiv 3 pmod{10}$.
        See Modular Arithmetic for more information.



        Without the brackets, Wolfram also gives a solution at the bottom, but now it gives all integer solutions.




        Integer solution:




        $b=10n+3, nin mathbb Z$









        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 5 '18 at 23:42









        I like SerenaI like Serena

        3,7471718




        3,7471718























            1












            $begingroup$

            Okay.



            $pmod n$ means we are doing modulo arithmetic on equivalence classes.



            $5 equiv (6*8 + 9*b)pmod {10}$ means to find which modulo class $b$ belongs to.



            Perhaps a less confusing notation is $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$. The $pmod {10}$ isn't something you do. It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in. And we can solve it:



            $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$



            $5 equiv_{10} 48 + 9b$



            $5 equiv_{10} 8 + (-1)b$



            $-3equiv_{10} -b$



            $3 equiv_{10} b$



            $b equiv 3 pmod {10}$.



            And without the parenthesis it means the similar but entirely different "gimme the remainder" operation in the "universe" of regualar old arithetic.



            $5 = (6*8 + 9b) mod 10$ means.



            The remainder of $(6*8+9b)div 10$ is $5$



            So $48 + 9b = 10n + 5$ for some number $n$



            $9b = -43 + 10n$



            $9b = 27 + 10(n-6)$



            $b = 3 + 10frac {n-6}9$ for some integer $frac {n-6}9$. We don't actually care what $n$ is. Just that be if $b= 3 + 10k$ we will get that remainder.



            So Wolfram is programmed to solve those in different manners. Even though in practice the results are very very similar.



            Note: $5 = 6*8 + 9b mod 10$ would be different.



            $-43 = (9b mod 10)$ but $0 le 9b mod 10 < 10$ and that can't be $-43$ so this has no solutions. (Whereas $5 = (6*8 + 9b)mod 10$ has infinite solutions and $5 equiv 6*8 + 9b pmod{10}$ has one solution that is an equivalence class that represents infinitely many equivalent integers.)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:01












            • $begingroup$
              9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
              $endgroup$
              – sashaaero
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:04










            • $begingroup$
              "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:13












            • $begingroup$
              $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:15










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:32


















            1












            $begingroup$

            Okay.



            $pmod n$ means we are doing modulo arithmetic on equivalence classes.



            $5 equiv (6*8 + 9*b)pmod {10}$ means to find which modulo class $b$ belongs to.



            Perhaps a less confusing notation is $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$. The $pmod {10}$ isn't something you do. It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in. And we can solve it:



            $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$



            $5 equiv_{10} 48 + 9b$



            $5 equiv_{10} 8 + (-1)b$



            $-3equiv_{10} -b$



            $3 equiv_{10} b$



            $b equiv 3 pmod {10}$.



            And without the parenthesis it means the similar but entirely different "gimme the remainder" operation in the "universe" of regualar old arithetic.



            $5 = (6*8 + 9b) mod 10$ means.



            The remainder of $(6*8+9b)div 10$ is $5$



            So $48 + 9b = 10n + 5$ for some number $n$



            $9b = -43 + 10n$



            $9b = 27 + 10(n-6)$



            $b = 3 + 10frac {n-6}9$ for some integer $frac {n-6}9$. We don't actually care what $n$ is. Just that be if $b= 3 + 10k$ we will get that remainder.



            So Wolfram is programmed to solve those in different manners. Even though in practice the results are very very similar.



            Note: $5 = 6*8 + 9b mod 10$ would be different.



            $-43 = (9b mod 10)$ but $0 le 9b mod 10 < 10$ and that can't be $-43$ so this has no solutions. (Whereas $5 = (6*8 + 9b)mod 10$ has infinite solutions and $5 equiv 6*8 + 9b pmod{10}$ has one solution that is an equivalence class that represents infinitely many equivalent integers.)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:01












            • $begingroup$
              9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
              $endgroup$
              – sashaaero
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:04










            • $begingroup$
              "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:13












            • $begingroup$
              $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:15










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:32
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Okay.



            $pmod n$ means we are doing modulo arithmetic on equivalence classes.



            $5 equiv (6*8 + 9*b)pmod {10}$ means to find which modulo class $b$ belongs to.



            Perhaps a less confusing notation is $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$. The $pmod {10}$ isn't something you do. It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in. And we can solve it:



            $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$



            $5 equiv_{10} 48 + 9b$



            $5 equiv_{10} 8 + (-1)b$



            $-3equiv_{10} -b$



            $3 equiv_{10} b$



            $b equiv 3 pmod {10}$.



            And without the parenthesis it means the similar but entirely different "gimme the remainder" operation in the "universe" of regualar old arithetic.



            $5 = (6*8 + 9b) mod 10$ means.



            The remainder of $(6*8+9b)div 10$ is $5$



            So $48 + 9b = 10n + 5$ for some number $n$



            $9b = -43 + 10n$



            $9b = 27 + 10(n-6)$



            $b = 3 + 10frac {n-6}9$ for some integer $frac {n-6}9$. We don't actually care what $n$ is. Just that be if $b= 3 + 10k$ we will get that remainder.



            So Wolfram is programmed to solve those in different manners. Even though in practice the results are very very similar.



            Note: $5 = 6*8 + 9b mod 10$ would be different.



            $-43 = (9b mod 10)$ but $0 le 9b mod 10 < 10$ and that can't be $-43$ so this has no solutions. (Whereas $5 = (6*8 + 9b)mod 10$ has infinite solutions and $5 equiv 6*8 + 9b pmod{10}$ has one solution that is an equivalence class that represents infinitely many equivalent integers.)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Okay.



            $pmod n$ means we are doing modulo arithmetic on equivalence classes.



            $5 equiv (6*8 + 9*b)pmod {10}$ means to find which modulo class $b$ belongs to.



            Perhaps a less confusing notation is $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$. The $pmod {10}$ isn't something you do. It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in. And we can solve it:



            $5 equiv_{10} (6*8+9b)$



            $5 equiv_{10} 48 + 9b$



            $5 equiv_{10} 8 + (-1)b$



            $-3equiv_{10} -b$



            $3 equiv_{10} b$



            $b equiv 3 pmod {10}$.



            And without the parenthesis it means the similar but entirely different "gimme the remainder" operation in the "universe" of regualar old arithetic.



            $5 = (6*8 + 9b) mod 10$ means.



            The remainder of $(6*8+9b)div 10$ is $5$



            So $48 + 9b = 10n + 5$ for some number $n$



            $9b = -43 + 10n$



            $9b = 27 + 10(n-6)$



            $b = 3 + 10frac {n-6}9$ for some integer $frac {n-6}9$. We don't actually care what $n$ is. Just that be if $b= 3 + 10k$ we will get that remainder.



            So Wolfram is programmed to solve those in different manners. Even though in practice the results are very very similar.



            Note: $5 = 6*8 + 9b mod 10$ would be different.



            $-43 = (9b mod 10)$ but $0 le 9b mod 10 < 10$ and that can't be $-43$ so this has no solutions. (Whereas $5 = (6*8 + 9b)mod 10$ has infinite solutions and $5 equiv 6*8 + 9b pmod{10}$ has one solution that is an equivalence class that represents infinitely many equivalent integers.)







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 5 '18 at 23:56









            fleabloodfleablood

            68.7k22685




            68.7k22685












            • $begingroup$
              I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:01












            • $begingroup$
              9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
              $endgroup$
              – sashaaero
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:04










            • $begingroup$
              "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:13












            • $begingroup$
              $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:15










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:32




















            • $begingroup$
              I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:01












            • $begingroup$
              9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
              $endgroup$
              – sashaaero
              Dec 6 '18 at 0:04










            • $begingroup$
              "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:13












            • $begingroup$
              $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
              $endgroup$
              – fleablood
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:15










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 1:32


















            $begingroup$
            I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 0:01






            $begingroup$
            I disagree with your first sentence. While it's true that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ belong to the same equivalence class in $Bbb Z/m$, it does not mean that $a$ and $b$ are themselves classes. Actually, $aequiv bpmod{m}$ means that $a$ and $b$ are integers such that $m$ divides $a-b$. So, solving the modular equation $f(n)equiv a pmod{m}$ does not mean finding an equivalence classe. In general the set of integer solutions $n$ will not be an equivalence class modulo $m$ anyway, for instance consider the equation $2^nequiv 0pmod2$.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 0:01














            $begingroup$
            9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
            $endgroup$
            – sashaaero
            Dec 6 '18 at 0:04




            $begingroup$
            9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10?
            $endgroup$
            – sashaaero
            Dec 6 '18 at 0:04












            $begingroup$
            "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
            $endgroup$
            – fleablood
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:13






            $begingroup$
            "9 becomes -1 because 9 < 10 so you take 9 - 10". Yes, an no. Because we are evaluating congruences modulo $10$ we are not concerned with actual integers. We can replace $9$ with $-1$ (or $19$ or $29$) without any consequence because for our purposes $9$ and $-1$ are equivalent. And they are equivalent because $9 = -1 + 10k$ for some $k$. I wouldn't have swapped them out in the other interpretation.
            $endgroup$
            – fleablood
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:13














            $begingroup$
            $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
            $endgroup$
            – fleablood
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:15




            $begingroup$
            $2^n equiv 0pmod 2$ Solve for $n$ is a completely different question.
            $endgroup$
            – fleablood
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:15












            $begingroup$
            Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:32






            $begingroup$
            Yes, but your formulation of the problem is extremely misleading. You write "It's a statement about what "universe" of arithmetic you are working in.", however $b$ is simply a integer here. It's "as if" we were working in $Bbb Z/10$ because the equation is polynomial. But that's nowhere stated or explained. Note that I have the same concerns with the accepted answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 1:32













            1












            $begingroup$

            There is some confusion here, due to two the use and abuse of various related concepts



            1. Congruences and modular arithmetic



            You say the integers $a$ and $b$ are congruent modulo $m$ (a positive integer) iff $m$ divide $a-b$ and you write $aequiv bpmod{m}$ (and the divisibility relation is written $m,|,a-b$). In LaTeX, aequiv bpmod{m}.



            Congruences have a number of nice properties that you can find on Wikipédia and in many books of elementary number theory.



            For instance, if $aequiv bpmod{m}$ and $cequiv dpmod{m}$, then $a+cequiv b+dpmod{m}$ and $acequiv bdpmod{m}$. And $equiv$ is an equivalence relation.



            Modular arithmetic is said to "wrap around", because if $aequiv bpmod{m}$, then $a+kmequiv bpmod{m}$ for all integers $k$.



            And given an integer $a$ you can always find a unique integer $rin{0,dots m-1}$ such that $aequiv rpmod{m}$. This $r$ has a precise meaning: $r$ is the remainder in the euclidean division of $a$ by $m$. And the relation $aequiv bpmod{m}$ actually means that $a$ and $b$ give the same remainder when divided by $m$.



            2. Rings, ideals and quotients



            Given the ring of integers $Bbb Z$, any ideal has the form $mBbb Z$ (it contains the multiples of some positive integer $m$) and you can consider the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. The quotient ring is a ring on the set of classes of integers defined by the equivalence relation $sim$, on $Bbb Z$, defined by $asim b$ if $a-bin mBbb Z$. You should see the similarity with $m,|,a-b$. Historically congruences came before rings and quotient rings, but congruences are actually a special case, and you can do that in any ring as long as you have an ideal and build the quotient ring.



            Given the ring $Bbb Z$ and the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$, you then have a canonical homomorphism $p:Bbb ZtoBbb Z/mBbb Z$ that maps any inteer $a$ to its class in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$.



            Then you can prove that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$. More generally, in an arbitrary ring, and given an ideal $frak a$, you can define $aequiv bpmod{frak a}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$.



            As you can see, all of this looks more abstract than congruences, but it's a very similar concept in disguise.



            Additionally, the notation for $p(a)$ can vary. It's sometimes written $cl(a)$, or even $dot a$. For instance, with $m=3$, there are $3$ congruence classes, ${3k,/,kinBbb Z}$, ${3k+1,/,kinBbb Z}$ and ${3k+2,/,kinBbb Z}$. Each one can be denoted by any element of the class, for instance $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z={cl(27),cl(82),cl(-1)}$, but it's common to use a unique representative element, and it's natural to take the $r$ defined earlier, that is the remainder in the euclidean division. Here the elements of $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z$ would be written $dot0,dot1,dot2$. When the context is clear enough, it's a common abuse of notation to write simply $0,1,2$, but I think the temptation should be resisted.



            3. Computer science



            Congruences are very useful but sometimes you want a notation for the actual remainder. Programming languages all have a way to denote the remainder, with an additional caveat. Pascal and Ada use a mod b, C and C-like languages use a%b, and notations such as mod(a,b) or rem(a,b) is not uncommon. However, languages have various interpretations on what the result is when $a$ or $b$ is negative, see this.



            There is a recent tendency, especially in discrete mathematics and computer science, to define the operator $amod b$ to be the remainder in the euclidean division. It's also possible to extend the definition to arbitrary real numbers $a,b$ (with $bne0$), and this also exists for floating-point arithmetic in programming languages.



            For integers $a,b$, $amod b$ is thus an integer, and for real $a,b$ it's a real.



            Now, there is again a similarity with $aequiv bpmod m$. Specifically, if $0le b<m$, then $b=amod m$ (read $b=(amod m)$ if your are in doubt). Likewise, you have always $aequiv (amod m) pmod{m}$.



            4. And $a=b pmod m$?



            This is a notation I would not advocate. I believe it's mainly used to mean the same as $aequiv bpmod m$, but it's misleading: it's not really an equality, the $pmod m$ part is crucial here. Or it could mean an equality in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. Since it's not entirely clear what is meant, and it's too similar to $a=bmod m$ (where $mathrm{mod}$ is the operator), I think it's a bad idea to use it.



            5. WolframAlpha's strange plot.



            You have now everything to understand why WolframAlpha is adding a plot when going from 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) (mod 10) to 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10. The former is a congruence and is used only with integers. The latter is an operator that can be defined on reals. In the plot, WolframAlpha is just showing how it interprets $5mod10$ and $(9b+48)mod 10$: the intersection is where there is equality.



            6. How do you solve this equation?



            Your equation can be written $5equiv 9b+48pmod{10}$.



            Since $5equiv5pmod{10}$, your equation is equivalent to $0equiv 9b+43pmod{10}$ (remember you can subtract two congruences with the same modulus).



            Since $bequiv bpmod{10}$ your equation is equivalent to $bequiv 10b+43pmod{10}$.



            Finally since you don't change the congruence by adding or subtracting a multiple of the modulus ($10$), your equation is equivalent to



            $$bequiv3 pmod{10}$$



            That is, the set of solutions is the set of integers such that $10,|,b-3$, which means $b=10k+3$ for some integer $k$. The set of solution is thus ${10k+3,/,kinBbb Z}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:41










            • $begingroup$
              I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:50












            • $begingroup$
              Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 1:34












            • $begingroup$
              @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 7 '18 at 7:21












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 14:43


















            1












            $begingroup$

            There is some confusion here, due to two the use and abuse of various related concepts



            1. Congruences and modular arithmetic



            You say the integers $a$ and $b$ are congruent modulo $m$ (a positive integer) iff $m$ divide $a-b$ and you write $aequiv bpmod{m}$ (and the divisibility relation is written $m,|,a-b$). In LaTeX, aequiv bpmod{m}.



            Congruences have a number of nice properties that you can find on Wikipédia and in many books of elementary number theory.



            For instance, if $aequiv bpmod{m}$ and $cequiv dpmod{m}$, then $a+cequiv b+dpmod{m}$ and $acequiv bdpmod{m}$. And $equiv$ is an equivalence relation.



            Modular arithmetic is said to "wrap around", because if $aequiv bpmod{m}$, then $a+kmequiv bpmod{m}$ for all integers $k$.



            And given an integer $a$ you can always find a unique integer $rin{0,dots m-1}$ such that $aequiv rpmod{m}$. This $r$ has a precise meaning: $r$ is the remainder in the euclidean division of $a$ by $m$. And the relation $aequiv bpmod{m}$ actually means that $a$ and $b$ give the same remainder when divided by $m$.



            2. Rings, ideals and quotients



            Given the ring of integers $Bbb Z$, any ideal has the form $mBbb Z$ (it contains the multiples of some positive integer $m$) and you can consider the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. The quotient ring is a ring on the set of classes of integers defined by the equivalence relation $sim$, on $Bbb Z$, defined by $asim b$ if $a-bin mBbb Z$. You should see the similarity with $m,|,a-b$. Historically congruences came before rings and quotient rings, but congruences are actually a special case, and you can do that in any ring as long as you have an ideal and build the quotient ring.



            Given the ring $Bbb Z$ and the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$, you then have a canonical homomorphism $p:Bbb ZtoBbb Z/mBbb Z$ that maps any inteer $a$ to its class in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$.



            Then you can prove that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$. More generally, in an arbitrary ring, and given an ideal $frak a$, you can define $aequiv bpmod{frak a}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$.



            As you can see, all of this looks more abstract than congruences, but it's a very similar concept in disguise.



            Additionally, the notation for $p(a)$ can vary. It's sometimes written $cl(a)$, or even $dot a$. For instance, with $m=3$, there are $3$ congruence classes, ${3k,/,kinBbb Z}$, ${3k+1,/,kinBbb Z}$ and ${3k+2,/,kinBbb Z}$. Each one can be denoted by any element of the class, for instance $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z={cl(27),cl(82),cl(-1)}$, but it's common to use a unique representative element, and it's natural to take the $r$ defined earlier, that is the remainder in the euclidean division. Here the elements of $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z$ would be written $dot0,dot1,dot2$. When the context is clear enough, it's a common abuse of notation to write simply $0,1,2$, but I think the temptation should be resisted.



            3. Computer science



            Congruences are very useful but sometimes you want a notation for the actual remainder. Programming languages all have a way to denote the remainder, with an additional caveat. Pascal and Ada use a mod b, C and C-like languages use a%b, and notations such as mod(a,b) or rem(a,b) is not uncommon. However, languages have various interpretations on what the result is when $a$ or $b$ is negative, see this.



            There is a recent tendency, especially in discrete mathematics and computer science, to define the operator $amod b$ to be the remainder in the euclidean division. It's also possible to extend the definition to arbitrary real numbers $a,b$ (with $bne0$), and this also exists for floating-point arithmetic in programming languages.



            For integers $a,b$, $amod b$ is thus an integer, and for real $a,b$ it's a real.



            Now, there is again a similarity with $aequiv bpmod m$. Specifically, if $0le b<m$, then $b=amod m$ (read $b=(amod m)$ if your are in doubt). Likewise, you have always $aequiv (amod m) pmod{m}$.



            4. And $a=b pmod m$?



            This is a notation I would not advocate. I believe it's mainly used to mean the same as $aequiv bpmod m$, but it's misleading: it's not really an equality, the $pmod m$ part is crucial here. Or it could mean an equality in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. Since it's not entirely clear what is meant, and it's too similar to $a=bmod m$ (where $mathrm{mod}$ is the operator), I think it's a bad idea to use it.



            5. WolframAlpha's strange plot.



            You have now everything to understand why WolframAlpha is adding a plot when going from 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) (mod 10) to 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10. The former is a congruence and is used only with integers. The latter is an operator that can be defined on reals. In the plot, WolframAlpha is just showing how it interprets $5mod10$ and $(9b+48)mod 10$: the intersection is where there is equality.



            6. How do you solve this equation?



            Your equation can be written $5equiv 9b+48pmod{10}$.



            Since $5equiv5pmod{10}$, your equation is equivalent to $0equiv 9b+43pmod{10}$ (remember you can subtract two congruences with the same modulus).



            Since $bequiv bpmod{10}$ your equation is equivalent to $bequiv 10b+43pmod{10}$.



            Finally since you don't change the congruence by adding or subtracting a multiple of the modulus ($10$), your equation is equivalent to



            $$bequiv3 pmod{10}$$



            That is, the set of solutions is the set of integers such that $10,|,b-3$, which means $b=10k+3$ for some integer $k$. The set of solution is thus ${10k+3,/,kinBbb Z}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:41










            • $begingroup$
              I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:50












            • $begingroup$
              Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 1:34












            • $begingroup$
              @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 7 '18 at 7:21












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 14:43
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            There is some confusion here, due to two the use and abuse of various related concepts



            1. Congruences and modular arithmetic



            You say the integers $a$ and $b$ are congruent modulo $m$ (a positive integer) iff $m$ divide $a-b$ and you write $aequiv bpmod{m}$ (and the divisibility relation is written $m,|,a-b$). In LaTeX, aequiv bpmod{m}.



            Congruences have a number of nice properties that you can find on Wikipédia and in many books of elementary number theory.



            For instance, if $aequiv bpmod{m}$ and $cequiv dpmod{m}$, then $a+cequiv b+dpmod{m}$ and $acequiv bdpmod{m}$. And $equiv$ is an equivalence relation.



            Modular arithmetic is said to "wrap around", because if $aequiv bpmod{m}$, then $a+kmequiv bpmod{m}$ for all integers $k$.



            And given an integer $a$ you can always find a unique integer $rin{0,dots m-1}$ such that $aequiv rpmod{m}$. This $r$ has a precise meaning: $r$ is the remainder in the euclidean division of $a$ by $m$. And the relation $aequiv bpmod{m}$ actually means that $a$ and $b$ give the same remainder when divided by $m$.



            2. Rings, ideals and quotients



            Given the ring of integers $Bbb Z$, any ideal has the form $mBbb Z$ (it contains the multiples of some positive integer $m$) and you can consider the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. The quotient ring is a ring on the set of classes of integers defined by the equivalence relation $sim$, on $Bbb Z$, defined by $asim b$ if $a-bin mBbb Z$. You should see the similarity with $m,|,a-b$. Historically congruences came before rings and quotient rings, but congruences are actually a special case, and you can do that in any ring as long as you have an ideal and build the quotient ring.



            Given the ring $Bbb Z$ and the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$, you then have a canonical homomorphism $p:Bbb ZtoBbb Z/mBbb Z$ that maps any inteer $a$ to its class in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$.



            Then you can prove that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$. More generally, in an arbitrary ring, and given an ideal $frak a$, you can define $aequiv bpmod{frak a}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$.



            As you can see, all of this looks more abstract than congruences, but it's a very similar concept in disguise.



            Additionally, the notation for $p(a)$ can vary. It's sometimes written $cl(a)$, or even $dot a$. For instance, with $m=3$, there are $3$ congruence classes, ${3k,/,kinBbb Z}$, ${3k+1,/,kinBbb Z}$ and ${3k+2,/,kinBbb Z}$. Each one can be denoted by any element of the class, for instance $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z={cl(27),cl(82),cl(-1)}$, but it's common to use a unique representative element, and it's natural to take the $r$ defined earlier, that is the remainder in the euclidean division. Here the elements of $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z$ would be written $dot0,dot1,dot2$. When the context is clear enough, it's a common abuse of notation to write simply $0,1,2$, but I think the temptation should be resisted.



            3. Computer science



            Congruences are very useful but sometimes you want a notation for the actual remainder. Programming languages all have a way to denote the remainder, with an additional caveat. Pascal and Ada use a mod b, C and C-like languages use a%b, and notations such as mod(a,b) or rem(a,b) is not uncommon. However, languages have various interpretations on what the result is when $a$ or $b$ is negative, see this.



            There is a recent tendency, especially in discrete mathematics and computer science, to define the operator $amod b$ to be the remainder in the euclidean division. It's also possible to extend the definition to arbitrary real numbers $a,b$ (with $bne0$), and this also exists for floating-point arithmetic in programming languages.



            For integers $a,b$, $amod b$ is thus an integer, and for real $a,b$ it's a real.



            Now, there is again a similarity with $aequiv bpmod m$. Specifically, if $0le b<m$, then $b=amod m$ (read $b=(amod m)$ if your are in doubt). Likewise, you have always $aequiv (amod m) pmod{m}$.



            4. And $a=b pmod m$?



            This is a notation I would not advocate. I believe it's mainly used to mean the same as $aequiv bpmod m$, but it's misleading: it's not really an equality, the $pmod m$ part is crucial here. Or it could mean an equality in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. Since it's not entirely clear what is meant, and it's too similar to $a=bmod m$ (where $mathrm{mod}$ is the operator), I think it's a bad idea to use it.



            5. WolframAlpha's strange plot.



            You have now everything to understand why WolframAlpha is adding a plot when going from 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) (mod 10) to 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10. The former is a congruence and is used only with integers. The latter is an operator that can be defined on reals. In the plot, WolframAlpha is just showing how it interprets $5mod10$ and $(9b+48)mod 10$: the intersection is where there is equality.



            6. How do you solve this equation?



            Your equation can be written $5equiv 9b+48pmod{10}$.



            Since $5equiv5pmod{10}$, your equation is equivalent to $0equiv 9b+43pmod{10}$ (remember you can subtract two congruences with the same modulus).



            Since $bequiv bpmod{10}$ your equation is equivalent to $bequiv 10b+43pmod{10}$.



            Finally since you don't change the congruence by adding or subtracting a multiple of the modulus ($10$), your equation is equivalent to



            $$bequiv3 pmod{10}$$



            That is, the set of solutions is the set of integers such that $10,|,b-3$, which means $b=10k+3$ for some integer $k$. The set of solution is thus ${10k+3,/,kinBbb Z}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            There is some confusion here, due to two the use and abuse of various related concepts



            1. Congruences and modular arithmetic



            You say the integers $a$ and $b$ are congruent modulo $m$ (a positive integer) iff $m$ divide $a-b$ and you write $aequiv bpmod{m}$ (and the divisibility relation is written $m,|,a-b$). In LaTeX, aequiv bpmod{m}.



            Congruences have a number of nice properties that you can find on Wikipédia and in many books of elementary number theory.



            For instance, if $aequiv bpmod{m}$ and $cequiv dpmod{m}$, then $a+cequiv b+dpmod{m}$ and $acequiv bdpmod{m}$. And $equiv$ is an equivalence relation.



            Modular arithmetic is said to "wrap around", because if $aequiv bpmod{m}$, then $a+kmequiv bpmod{m}$ for all integers $k$.



            And given an integer $a$ you can always find a unique integer $rin{0,dots m-1}$ such that $aequiv rpmod{m}$. This $r$ has a precise meaning: $r$ is the remainder in the euclidean division of $a$ by $m$. And the relation $aequiv bpmod{m}$ actually means that $a$ and $b$ give the same remainder when divided by $m$.



            2. Rings, ideals and quotients



            Given the ring of integers $Bbb Z$, any ideal has the form $mBbb Z$ (it contains the multiples of some positive integer $m$) and you can consider the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. The quotient ring is a ring on the set of classes of integers defined by the equivalence relation $sim$, on $Bbb Z$, defined by $asim b$ if $a-bin mBbb Z$. You should see the similarity with $m,|,a-b$. Historically congruences came before rings and quotient rings, but congruences are actually a special case, and you can do that in any ring as long as you have an ideal and build the quotient ring.



            Given the ring $Bbb Z$ and the quotient ring $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$, you then have a canonical homomorphism $p:Bbb ZtoBbb Z/mBbb Z$ that maps any inteer $a$ to its class in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$.



            Then you can prove that $aequiv bpmod{m}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$. More generally, in an arbitrary ring, and given an ideal $frak a$, you can define $aequiv bpmod{frak a}$ iff $p(a)=p(b)$.



            As you can see, all of this looks more abstract than congruences, but it's a very similar concept in disguise.



            Additionally, the notation for $p(a)$ can vary. It's sometimes written $cl(a)$, or even $dot a$. For instance, with $m=3$, there are $3$ congruence classes, ${3k,/,kinBbb Z}$, ${3k+1,/,kinBbb Z}$ and ${3k+2,/,kinBbb Z}$. Each one can be denoted by any element of the class, for instance $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z={cl(27),cl(82),cl(-1)}$, but it's common to use a unique representative element, and it's natural to take the $r$ defined earlier, that is the remainder in the euclidean division. Here the elements of $Bbb Z/3Bbb Z$ would be written $dot0,dot1,dot2$. When the context is clear enough, it's a common abuse of notation to write simply $0,1,2$, but I think the temptation should be resisted.



            3. Computer science



            Congruences are very useful but sometimes you want a notation for the actual remainder. Programming languages all have a way to denote the remainder, with an additional caveat. Pascal and Ada use a mod b, C and C-like languages use a%b, and notations such as mod(a,b) or rem(a,b) is not uncommon. However, languages have various interpretations on what the result is when $a$ or $b$ is negative, see this.



            There is a recent tendency, especially in discrete mathematics and computer science, to define the operator $amod b$ to be the remainder in the euclidean division. It's also possible to extend the definition to arbitrary real numbers $a,b$ (with $bne0$), and this also exists for floating-point arithmetic in programming languages.



            For integers $a,b$, $amod b$ is thus an integer, and for real $a,b$ it's a real.



            Now, there is again a similarity with $aequiv bpmod m$. Specifically, if $0le b<m$, then $b=amod m$ (read $b=(amod m)$ if your are in doubt). Likewise, you have always $aequiv (amod m) pmod{m}$.



            4. And $a=b pmod m$?



            This is a notation I would not advocate. I believe it's mainly used to mean the same as $aequiv bpmod m$, but it's misleading: it's not really an equality, the $pmod m$ part is crucial here. Or it could mean an equality in $Bbb Z/mBbb Z$. Since it's not entirely clear what is meant, and it's too similar to $a=bmod m$ (where $mathrm{mod}$ is the operator), I think it's a bad idea to use it.



            5. WolframAlpha's strange plot.



            You have now everything to understand why WolframAlpha is adding a plot when going from 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) (mod 10) to 5 = (6 * 8 + 9 * b) mod 10. The former is a congruence and is used only with integers. The latter is an operator that can be defined on reals. In the plot, WolframAlpha is just showing how it interprets $5mod10$ and $(9b+48)mod 10$: the intersection is where there is equality.



            6. How do you solve this equation?



            Your equation can be written $5equiv 9b+48pmod{10}$.



            Since $5equiv5pmod{10}$, your equation is equivalent to $0equiv 9b+43pmod{10}$ (remember you can subtract two congruences with the same modulus).



            Since $bequiv bpmod{10}$ your equation is equivalent to $bequiv 10b+43pmod{10}$.



            Finally since you don't change the congruence by adding or subtracting a multiple of the modulus ($10$), your equation is equivalent to



            $$bequiv3 pmod{10}$$



            That is, the set of solutions is the set of integers such that $10,|,b-3$, which means $b=10k+3$ for some integer $k$. The set of solution is thus ${10k+3,/,kinBbb Z}$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 7 '18 at 7:22

























            answered Dec 6 '18 at 10:08









            Jean-Claude ArbautJean-Claude Arbaut

            14.7k63464




            14.7k63464












            • $begingroup$
              If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:41










            • $begingroup$
              I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:50












            • $begingroup$
              Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 1:34












            • $begingroup$
              @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 7 '18 at 7:21












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 14:43




















            • $begingroup$
              If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:41










            • $begingroup$
              I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 6 '18 at 22:50












            • $begingroup$
              Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 1:34












            • $begingroup$
              @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Jean-Claude Arbaut
              Dec 7 '18 at 7:21












            • $begingroup$
              Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
              $endgroup$
              – I like Serena
              Dec 7 '18 at 14:43


















            $begingroup$
            If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 6 '18 at 22:41




            $begingroup$
            If it is given that $a,b in mathbb Z/m$, there's nothing wrong with saying that $a=b$, with or without the $bmod{m}$. Nor saying that $aequiv b$, with or without the $pmod{m}$. It's all a matter of context. And even that becomes irrelevant if there is no room for confusion about what we're talking about.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 6 '18 at 22:41












            $begingroup$
            I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 22:50






            $begingroup$
            I don't think notation is ever irrelevant. If only because a standard and uniform notation eases reading. If I read $2$, I expect it's an integer, not an "irrelevant detail" according to the writer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 6 '18 at 22:50














            $begingroup$
            Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 7 '18 at 1:34






            $begingroup$
            Your use of $mathbb Z/m$ is the first time I've seen it. For instance wiki does not mention it. Given the context I immediately understand what you mean, but strictly speaking, it's the set ${0,pm 1/m, pm 2/m,ldots}$. Just saying.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 7 '18 at 1:34














            $begingroup$
            @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 7 '18 at 7:21






            $begingroup$
            @IlikeSerena I have seen this in several places, but I don't like it either. I thought it was well known. I have also seen $Bbb Z_n$ by the way. Of course, as long as textbooks give the definition, it's ok, but you are right, it's not a good habit as it can be confused with something ele (however, I would rather write $frac1nBbb Z$ for the set you mention, to avoid confusion). I will remove this one from the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Jean-Claude Arbaut
            Dec 7 '18 at 7:21














            $begingroup$
            Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 7 '18 at 14:43






            $begingroup$
            Yes, I am used to either $mathbb Z_n$ or $mathbb Z/nmathbb Z$. It remains ambiguous whether it is the additive group, the ring, or just the set of elements though. To remove the ambiguity, we should write something like 'the ring $(mathbb Z/nmathbb Z,+,cdot)$ with the usual addition and multiplication', which is usually considered to be a bit long winded.
            $endgroup$
            – I like Serena
            Dec 7 '18 at 14:43




















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