Conditioning random variables
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I have two issues that seem to be related.
1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?
2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.
probability conditional-probability
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I have two issues that seem to be related.
1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?
2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.
probability conditional-probability
1
For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I have two issues that seem to be related.
1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?
2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.
probability conditional-probability
I have two issues that seem to be related.
1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?
2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.
probability conditional-probability
probability conditional-probability
asked Nov 27 at 3:53
user51966
14710
14710
1
For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55
add a comment |
1
For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55
1
1
For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55
For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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- Starting with
$$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
$$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $. - For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
- Starting with
$$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
$$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $. - For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
- Starting with
$$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
$$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $. - For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
- Starting with
$$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
$$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $. - For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.
- Starting with
$$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
$$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $. - For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.
answered Nov 27 at 10:36
rzch
1363
1363
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For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55