Conditioning random variables











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I have two issues that seem to be related.



1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?



2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.










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    For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
    – bob
    Nov 27 at 4:55

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I have two issues that seem to be related.



1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?



2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
    – bob
    Nov 27 at 4:55















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I have two issues that seem to be related.



1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?



2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.










share|cite|improve this question













I have two issues that seem to be related.



1) Suppose we have two random variables $A$ and $B$ that are conditioned by $X$. If we want to calculate $$ frac{p(A, B | X)}{p(B | X)},$$ do we always need to use Bayes rule and get $p(A|X, B)$? Since both are conditioned on $X$, why can't we say $p(A|X)$?



2) Suppose $Y sim rm{Normal}(0,1)$. I think $mathbb{E}[Y]$ is 0, but does it change the value if we calculate $mathbb{E}[Y|Y]$, is it $mathbb{E}[Y|Y] = Y$? I cannot understand why conditioning changes its expectation.







probability conditional-probability






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asked Nov 27 at 3:53









user51966

14710




14710








  • 1




    For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
    – bob
    Nov 27 at 4:55
















  • 1




    For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
    – bob
    Nov 27 at 4:55










1




1




For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55






For #2, you may know that E[Y] has mean zero based on the distribution, but conditioning will change the expectation. If you know that $Y=c$ for some c, then of course, $E[Y|Y=c]=E[c]=c$. In a sense, it is trivial. Knowing that $Y=c$, you wouldn't expect Y to be zero any more.
– bob
Nov 27 at 4:55












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  1. Starting with
    $$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
    and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
    $$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
    So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $.

  2. For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.






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    1 Answer
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    1. Starting with
      $$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
      and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
      $$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
      So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $.

    2. For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted











      1. Starting with
        $$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
        and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
        $$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
        So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $.

      2. For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        1. Starting with
          $$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
          and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
          $$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
          So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $.

        2. For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        1. Starting with
          $$ pleft(Amiddle|Bright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $$
          and conditioning everything on $X$ gives
          $$ pleft(Amiddle|B, Xright) = dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)} $$
          So $pleft(Amiddle|Xright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bmiddle| Xright)}{pleft(Bmiddle| Xright)}$ in the same way that $ pleft(Aright) neq dfrac{pleft(A,Bright)}{pleft(Bright)} $.

        2. For the particular case $mathbb{E}left[Ymiddle|Yright] = Y$, I like to reason about this as follows. If I gave you the value of $Y$ and asked what you expected the value of $Y$ to be, what would you answer? Well of course the expectation should be whatever the value I just gave you, which is $Y$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 at 10:36









        rzch

        1363




        1363






























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