Show that $f(0)>0,; f'(0)=0,; f''(x)<0$ imply that $f(x)=0$ has exactly 1 positive root.











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Let $f$ be a function twice differentiable on $mathbb{R}$. Suppose that $f(0)>0, ; f'(0)=0$ and $; f''(x)<0$ for all $x>0$. Prove that $f(x)=0$ has exactly one positive root.




We have $f''(x)<0 implies f'(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$. Then $f'(0)=0$, so $f'(x)<0$ on $(0,infty)$. So $f$ has at most 1 positive root.



$f'(x)<0 implies f(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$.



How do I make use of the fact that $f(0)>0$ to show $f(x)=0$ has at least 1 positive root?










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    You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 27 at 6:47















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1













Let $f$ be a function twice differentiable on $mathbb{R}$. Suppose that $f(0)>0, ; f'(0)=0$ and $; f''(x)<0$ for all $x>0$. Prove that $f(x)=0$ has exactly one positive root.




We have $f''(x)<0 implies f'(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$. Then $f'(0)=0$, so $f'(x)<0$ on $(0,infty)$. So $f$ has at most 1 positive root.



$f'(x)<0 implies f(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$.



How do I make use of the fact that $f(0)>0$ to show $f(x)=0$ has at least 1 positive root?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 27 at 6:47













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
1






1






Let $f$ be a function twice differentiable on $mathbb{R}$. Suppose that $f(0)>0, ; f'(0)=0$ and $; f''(x)<0$ for all $x>0$. Prove that $f(x)=0$ has exactly one positive root.




We have $f''(x)<0 implies f'(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$. Then $f'(0)=0$, so $f'(x)<0$ on $(0,infty)$. So $f$ has at most 1 positive root.



$f'(x)<0 implies f(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$.



How do I make use of the fact that $f(0)>0$ to show $f(x)=0$ has at least 1 positive root?










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $f$ be a function twice differentiable on $mathbb{R}$. Suppose that $f(0)>0, ; f'(0)=0$ and $; f''(x)<0$ for all $x>0$. Prove that $f(x)=0$ has exactly one positive root.




We have $f''(x)<0 implies f'(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$. Then $f'(0)=0$, so $f'(x)<0$ on $(0,infty)$. So $f$ has at most 1 positive root.



$f'(x)<0 implies f(x)$ is strictly decreasing on $(0,infty)$.



How do I make use of the fact that $f(0)>0$ to show $f(x)=0$ has at least 1 positive root?







calculus real-analysis






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edited Nov 27 at 7:06









Robert Z

92k1058129




92k1058129










asked Nov 27 at 6:40









Jan

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453








  • 1




    You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 27 at 6:47














  • 1




    You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 27 at 6:47








1




1




You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
– Patrick Stevens
Nov 27 at 6:47




You're going to have to use $f''(x) < 0$ more strongly, because merely being strictly decreasing is not enough: $f(0) > 0$ and $f'(0) = 0$ and "$f$ strictly decreasing" does not imply that $f$ has a positive root.
– Patrick Stevens
Nov 27 at 6:47










4 Answers
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up vote
4
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accepted










The condition $f''<0$ implies that $f'$ is strictly decreasing. Since $f'(0)=0$, $f'(a)$ must be negative for some positive $a$ that is close to zero. But then, as $f'$ is strictly decreasing, $f'(x)<f'(a)$ for every $xge a$. By mean value theorem, when $x>a$, $f(x)-f(a)=f'(c)(x-a)$ for some $cin(x,a)$. Hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ whenever $x>a$, meaning that $f(x)$ is eventually negative when $xto+infty$. Hence $f(b)<0$ for some $b>a$. Now $f(0)>0>f(b)$. By intermediate value theorem, $f(x)=0$ has a positive root. As $f$ is strictly decreasing, this root is unique.






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  • I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
    – Jan
    Nov 27 at 7:34










  • @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
    – William McGonagall
    Nov 27 at 7:38




















up vote
3
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Hint. Since $f$ is strictly concave in $(0,+infty)$, we have that for $x_0,x>0$,
$$f(x)leq f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ f(x_0).$$
that is the graph of $f$ stays under its tangent at $x_0$.
Note that here $f'(x_0)<0$. Take the limit as $xto +infty$. What may we conclude?






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    You may show this also as follows:





    • Uniqueness: Assume $x_1,x_2 > 0$ with $f(x_1) = f(x_2) = 0$ and $x_1 neq x_2$
      $$Rightarrow exists xi > 0: f'(xi) = 0 mbox{ contradiction to } f' mbox{ strictly decreasing and } f'(0) = 0.$$


    • Existence: Consider $x geq 1$ and use MVT for continuous functions:
      $$f(x) = f(1) + int_{1}^x f'(t);dt stackrel{f'(t) leq f'(1) <0}{leq} f(1) + (x-1)cdot underbrace{f'(1)}_{<0} color{blue}{<0} mbox{ for } x mbox{ large enough.}$$
      So, $f$ changes the sign on $[0,infty)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Since the second derivative $f''$ is negative in $(0,infty) $, the first derivative $f' $ is strictly decreasing in $[0,infty)$. And we have $f'(0)=0$ so that $f'$ is negative in $(0,infty)$. It thus follows that $f'(x) $ either tends to a negative limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty$.



      The fact that derivative $f'$ is negative leads us to the conclusion that $f$ is strictly decreasing on $[0,infty)$ and hence $f(x) $ either tends to a limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty $. If $f(x) to L$ then by mean value theorem we have $$f(x+1)-f(x)=f'(xi)$$ for some $xiin(x, x+1)$. Now as $xtoinfty$ the LHS of above equation tends to $L-L=0$ and the RHS remains strictly away from $0$ (see last paragraph) which is a contradiction. Thus $f(x) to-infty$ as $xtoinfty $. Since $f(0)>0$, it follows by intermediate value theorem that $f(x) $ vanishes at least once in $(0,infty) $ and since $f$ is strictly monotone it vanishes only once. Thus $f$ has exactly one positive real root.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
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        The condition $f''<0$ implies that $f'$ is strictly decreasing. Since $f'(0)=0$, $f'(a)$ must be negative for some positive $a$ that is close to zero. But then, as $f'$ is strictly decreasing, $f'(x)<f'(a)$ for every $xge a$. By mean value theorem, when $x>a$, $f(x)-f(a)=f'(c)(x-a)$ for some $cin(x,a)$. Hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ whenever $x>a$, meaning that $f(x)$ is eventually negative when $xto+infty$. Hence $f(b)<0$ for some $b>a$. Now $f(0)>0>f(b)$. By intermediate value theorem, $f(x)=0$ has a positive root. As $f$ is strictly decreasing, this root is unique.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
          – Jan
          Nov 27 at 7:34










        • @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
          – William McGonagall
          Nov 27 at 7:38

















        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted










        The condition $f''<0$ implies that $f'$ is strictly decreasing. Since $f'(0)=0$, $f'(a)$ must be negative for some positive $a$ that is close to zero. But then, as $f'$ is strictly decreasing, $f'(x)<f'(a)$ for every $xge a$. By mean value theorem, when $x>a$, $f(x)-f(a)=f'(c)(x-a)$ for some $cin(x,a)$. Hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ whenever $x>a$, meaning that $f(x)$ is eventually negative when $xto+infty$. Hence $f(b)<0$ for some $b>a$. Now $f(0)>0>f(b)$. By intermediate value theorem, $f(x)=0$ has a positive root. As $f$ is strictly decreasing, this root is unique.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
          – Jan
          Nov 27 at 7:34










        • @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
          – William McGonagall
          Nov 27 at 7:38















        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted






        The condition $f''<0$ implies that $f'$ is strictly decreasing. Since $f'(0)=0$, $f'(a)$ must be negative for some positive $a$ that is close to zero. But then, as $f'$ is strictly decreasing, $f'(x)<f'(a)$ for every $xge a$. By mean value theorem, when $x>a$, $f(x)-f(a)=f'(c)(x-a)$ for some $cin(x,a)$. Hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ whenever $x>a$, meaning that $f(x)$ is eventually negative when $xto+infty$. Hence $f(b)<0$ for some $b>a$. Now $f(0)>0>f(b)$. By intermediate value theorem, $f(x)=0$ has a positive root. As $f$ is strictly decreasing, this root is unique.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The condition $f''<0$ implies that $f'$ is strictly decreasing. Since $f'(0)=0$, $f'(a)$ must be negative for some positive $a$ that is close to zero. But then, as $f'$ is strictly decreasing, $f'(x)<f'(a)$ for every $xge a$. By mean value theorem, when $x>a$, $f(x)-f(a)=f'(c)(x-a)$ for some $cin(x,a)$. Hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ whenever $x>a$, meaning that $f(x)$ is eventually negative when $xto+infty$. Hence $f(b)<0$ for some $b>a$. Now $f(0)>0>f(b)$. By intermediate value theorem, $f(x)=0$ has a positive root. As $f$ is strictly decreasing, this root is unique.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 at 7:04









        William McGonagall

        1337




        1337












        • I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
          – Jan
          Nov 27 at 7:34










        • @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
          – William McGonagall
          Nov 27 at 7:38




















        • I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
          – Jan
          Nov 27 at 7:34










        • @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
          – William McGonagall
          Nov 27 at 7:38


















        I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
        – Jan
        Nov 27 at 7:34




        I'm struggling with the part in the proof where you say $f(x)$ is eventually negative. Why?
        – Jan
        Nov 27 at 7:34












        @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
        – William McGonagall
        Nov 27 at 7:38






        @Jan $f'(a)$ is negative. When $x-a>frac{f(a)}{-f'(a)}$, $f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ would be negative and hence $f(x)<f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)$ is negative too.
        – William McGonagall
        Nov 27 at 7:38












        up vote
        3
        down vote













        Hint. Since $f$ is strictly concave in $(0,+infty)$, we have that for $x_0,x>0$,
        $$f(x)leq f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ f(x_0).$$
        that is the graph of $f$ stays under its tangent at $x_0$.
        Note that here $f'(x_0)<0$. Take the limit as $xto +infty$. What may we conclude?






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Hint. Since $f$ is strictly concave in $(0,+infty)$, we have that for $x_0,x>0$,
          $$f(x)leq f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ f(x_0).$$
          that is the graph of $f$ stays under its tangent at $x_0$.
          Note that here $f'(x_0)<0$. Take the limit as $xto +infty$. What may we conclude?






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Hint. Since $f$ is strictly concave in $(0,+infty)$, we have that for $x_0,x>0$,
            $$f(x)leq f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ f(x_0).$$
            that is the graph of $f$ stays under its tangent at $x_0$.
            Note that here $f'(x_0)<0$. Take the limit as $xto +infty$. What may we conclude?






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Hint. Since $f$ is strictly concave in $(0,+infty)$, we have that for $x_0,x>0$,
            $$f(x)leq f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ f(x_0).$$
            that is the graph of $f$ stays under its tangent at $x_0$.
            Note that here $f'(x_0)<0$. Take the limit as $xto +infty$. What may we conclude?







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 27 at 6:54

























            answered Nov 27 at 6:49









            Robert Z

            92k1058129




            92k1058129






















                up vote
                0
                down vote













                You may show this also as follows:





                • Uniqueness: Assume $x_1,x_2 > 0$ with $f(x_1) = f(x_2) = 0$ and $x_1 neq x_2$
                  $$Rightarrow exists xi > 0: f'(xi) = 0 mbox{ contradiction to } f' mbox{ strictly decreasing and } f'(0) = 0.$$


                • Existence: Consider $x geq 1$ and use MVT for continuous functions:
                  $$f(x) = f(1) + int_{1}^x f'(t);dt stackrel{f'(t) leq f'(1) <0}{leq} f(1) + (x-1)cdot underbrace{f'(1)}_{<0} color{blue}{<0} mbox{ for } x mbox{ large enough.}$$
                  So, $f$ changes the sign on $[0,infty)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  You may show this also as follows:





                  • Uniqueness: Assume $x_1,x_2 > 0$ with $f(x_1) = f(x_2) = 0$ and $x_1 neq x_2$
                    $$Rightarrow exists xi > 0: f'(xi) = 0 mbox{ contradiction to } f' mbox{ strictly decreasing and } f'(0) = 0.$$


                  • Existence: Consider $x geq 1$ and use MVT for continuous functions:
                    $$f(x) = f(1) + int_{1}^x f'(t);dt stackrel{f'(t) leq f'(1) <0}{leq} f(1) + (x-1)cdot underbrace{f'(1)}_{<0} color{blue}{<0} mbox{ for } x mbox{ large enough.}$$
                    So, $f$ changes the sign on $[0,infty)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    You may show this also as follows:





                    • Uniqueness: Assume $x_1,x_2 > 0$ with $f(x_1) = f(x_2) = 0$ and $x_1 neq x_2$
                      $$Rightarrow exists xi > 0: f'(xi) = 0 mbox{ contradiction to } f' mbox{ strictly decreasing and } f'(0) = 0.$$


                    • Existence: Consider $x geq 1$ and use MVT for continuous functions:
                      $$f(x) = f(1) + int_{1}^x f'(t);dt stackrel{f'(t) leq f'(1) <0}{leq} f(1) + (x-1)cdot underbrace{f'(1)}_{<0} color{blue}{<0} mbox{ for } x mbox{ large enough.}$$
                      So, $f$ changes the sign on $[0,infty)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    You may show this also as follows:





                    • Uniqueness: Assume $x_1,x_2 > 0$ with $f(x_1) = f(x_2) = 0$ and $x_1 neq x_2$
                      $$Rightarrow exists xi > 0: f'(xi) = 0 mbox{ contradiction to } f' mbox{ strictly decreasing and } f'(0) = 0.$$


                    • Existence: Consider $x geq 1$ and use MVT for continuous functions:
                      $$f(x) = f(1) + int_{1}^x f'(t);dt stackrel{f'(t) leq f'(1) <0}{leq} f(1) + (x-1)cdot underbrace{f'(1)}_{<0} color{blue}{<0} mbox{ for } x mbox{ large enough.}$$
                      So, $f$ changes the sign on $[0,infty)$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 27 at 7:50









                    trancelocation

                    8,8951521




                    8,8951521






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Since the second derivative $f''$ is negative in $(0,infty) $, the first derivative $f' $ is strictly decreasing in $[0,infty)$. And we have $f'(0)=0$ so that $f'$ is negative in $(0,infty)$. It thus follows that $f'(x) $ either tends to a negative limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty$.



                        The fact that derivative $f'$ is negative leads us to the conclusion that $f$ is strictly decreasing on $[0,infty)$ and hence $f(x) $ either tends to a limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty $. If $f(x) to L$ then by mean value theorem we have $$f(x+1)-f(x)=f'(xi)$$ for some $xiin(x, x+1)$. Now as $xtoinfty$ the LHS of above equation tends to $L-L=0$ and the RHS remains strictly away from $0$ (see last paragraph) which is a contradiction. Thus $f(x) to-infty$ as $xtoinfty $. Since $f(0)>0$, it follows by intermediate value theorem that $f(x) $ vanishes at least once in $(0,infty) $ and since $f$ is strictly monotone it vanishes only once. Thus $f$ has exactly one positive real root.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Since the second derivative $f''$ is negative in $(0,infty) $, the first derivative $f' $ is strictly decreasing in $[0,infty)$. And we have $f'(0)=0$ so that $f'$ is negative in $(0,infty)$. It thus follows that $f'(x) $ either tends to a negative limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty$.



                          The fact that derivative $f'$ is negative leads us to the conclusion that $f$ is strictly decreasing on $[0,infty)$ and hence $f(x) $ either tends to a limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty $. If $f(x) to L$ then by mean value theorem we have $$f(x+1)-f(x)=f'(xi)$$ for some $xiin(x, x+1)$. Now as $xtoinfty$ the LHS of above equation tends to $L-L=0$ and the RHS remains strictly away from $0$ (see last paragraph) which is a contradiction. Thus $f(x) to-infty$ as $xtoinfty $. Since $f(0)>0$, it follows by intermediate value theorem that $f(x) $ vanishes at least once in $(0,infty) $ and since $f$ is strictly monotone it vanishes only once. Thus $f$ has exactly one positive real root.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Since the second derivative $f''$ is negative in $(0,infty) $, the first derivative $f' $ is strictly decreasing in $[0,infty)$. And we have $f'(0)=0$ so that $f'$ is negative in $(0,infty)$. It thus follows that $f'(x) $ either tends to a negative limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty$.



                            The fact that derivative $f'$ is negative leads us to the conclusion that $f$ is strictly decreasing on $[0,infty)$ and hence $f(x) $ either tends to a limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty $. If $f(x) to L$ then by mean value theorem we have $$f(x+1)-f(x)=f'(xi)$$ for some $xiin(x, x+1)$. Now as $xtoinfty$ the LHS of above equation tends to $L-L=0$ and the RHS remains strictly away from $0$ (see last paragraph) which is a contradiction. Thus $f(x) to-infty$ as $xtoinfty $. Since $f(0)>0$, it follows by intermediate value theorem that $f(x) $ vanishes at least once in $(0,infty) $ and since $f$ is strictly monotone it vanishes only once. Thus $f$ has exactly one positive real root.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Since the second derivative $f''$ is negative in $(0,infty) $, the first derivative $f' $ is strictly decreasing in $[0,infty)$. And we have $f'(0)=0$ so that $f'$ is negative in $(0,infty)$. It thus follows that $f'(x) $ either tends to a negative limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty$.



                            The fact that derivative $f'$ is negative leads us to the conclusion that $f$ is strictly decreasing on $[0,infty)$ and hence $f(x) $ either tends to a limit or diverges to $-infty $ as $xtoinfty $. If $f(x) to L$ then by mean value theorem we have $$f(x+1)-f(x)=f'(xi)$$ for some $xiin(x, x+1)$. Now as $xtoinfty$ the LHS of above equation tends to $L-L=0$ and the RHS remains strictly away from $0$ (see last paragraph) which is a contradiction. Thus $f(x) to-infty$ as $xtoinfty $. Since $f(0)>0$, it follows by intermediate value theorem that $f(x) $ vanishes at least once in $(0,infty) $ and since $f$ is strictly monotone it vanishes only once. Thus $f$ has exactly one positive real root.







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                            answered Nov 28 at 2:16









                            Paramanand Singh

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