Special fiber is geometrically connected if the generic fiber is under properness assumption?











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I am a beginner in algebraic geometry, and want to understand the following proof towards criterion of Néron–Ogg–Shafarevich for abelian varieties:



Why can Zariski's connectedness theorem imply fiber is geometric connected? I think this requires $f_*O_X=O_{Y}$ and follows by Stein decomposition. Is there another proof or generalization for this lemma?










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    You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
    – Watson
    Nov 27 at 7:36










  • @Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 7:41















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












I am a beginner in algebraic geometry, and want to understand the following proof towards criterion of Néron–Ogg–Shafarevich for abelian varieties:



Why can Zariski's connectedness theorem imply fiber is geometric connected? I think this requires $f_*O_X=O_{Y}$ and follows by Stein decomposition. Is there another proof or generalization for this lemma?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
    – Watson
    Nov 27 at 7:36










  • @Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 7:41













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





I am a beginner in algebraic geometry, and want to understand the following proof towards criterion of Néron–Ogg–Shafarevich for abelian varieties:



Why can Zariski's connectedness theorem imply fiber is geometric connected? I think this requires $f_*O_X=O_{Y}$ and follows by Stein decomposition. Is there another proof or generalization for this lemma?










share|cite|improve this question















I am a beginner in algebraic geometry, and want to understand the following proof towards criterion of Néron–Ogg–Shafarevich for abelian varieties:



Why can Zariski's connectedness theorem imply fiber is geometric connected? I think this requires $f_*O_X=O_{Y}$ and follows by Stein decomposition. Is there another proof or generalization for this lemma?







algebraic-geometry






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 27 at 15:55

























asked Nov 27 at 4:18









zzy

2,2751419




2,2751419








  • 2




    You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
    – Watson
    Nov 27 at 7:36










  • @Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 7:41














  • 2




    You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
    – Watson
    Nov 27 at 7:36










  • @Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 7:41








2




2




You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
– Watson
Nov 27 at 7:36




You should always cite the documents that you use (namely, this one).
– Watson
Nov 27 at 7:36












@Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
– zzy
Nov 27 at 7:41




@Watson thank you! The picture contains the whole part of the proof, and I am only confused at the last sentence about connectedness. But anyway, it's good to add a reference.
– zzy
Nov 27 at 7:41










1 Answer
1






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up vote
2
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accepted










Let $Y = Spec(R)$. Let us consider the map induced by $f$



$f : mathcal{O}_{Y} rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



Since $X$ is proper over $R$, we get that $M := f_*mathcal{O}_X$ is a finite module over $R$. Note that $M$ is also a reduced $R-$algebra. Consider the natural base change map $varphi^0(y)$ for $y in Y$ not necessarily closed point



$varphi^0(y) : R^0f_*mathcal{O}_X = f_*mathcal{O}_X otimes k(y)rightarrow H^0(X_y, mathcal{O}_{X_y})$



where $X_y$ is the fiber over the point $y$. For $y = Spec(k)$, the map $Spec(k) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a flat map and hence we know this map to be an isomorphism by flat base change theorem. Also note that $X_y$ is geometrically connected by hypothesis and hence $H^0(X_k, mathcal{O}_{X_k}) = k$. Thus we get that the $R-$module $M$ satisifes $M otimes k cong k$. More geometrically, this says $Spec(M) otimes Spec(k) cong Spec(k)$. That is the map $Spec(M) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a normalization map since both have same function fields. Since $R$ being a dvr is already a normal ring, hence $Spec(M) xrightarrow{sim} Spec(R)$ is an isomorphism. That is $M cong R$. Thus one has



$mathcal{O}_Y rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



is an isomorphism. That is what was required.



All this is done in the following lemma. https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0AY8






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  • Thank you, that's helpful.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 15:48











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $Y = Spec(R)$. Let us consider the map induced by $f$



$f : mathcal{O}_{Y} rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



Since $X$ is proper over $R$, we get that $M := f_*mathcal{O}_X$ is a finite module over $R$. Note that $M$ is also a reduced $R-$algebra. Consider the natural base change map $varphi^0(y)$ for $y in Y$ not necessarily closed point



$varphi^0(y) : R^0f_*mathcal{O}_X = f_*mathcal{O}_X otimes k(y)rightarrow H^0(X_y, mathcal{O}_{X_y})$



where $X_y$ is the fiber over the point $y$. For $y = Spec(k)$, the map $Spec(k) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a flat map and hence we know this map to be an isomorphism by flat base change theorem. Also note that $X_y$ is geometrically connected by hypothesis and hence $H^0(X_k, mathcal{O}_{X_k}) = k$. Thus we get that the $R-$module $M$ satisifes $M otimes k cong k$. More geometrically, this says $Spec(M) otimes Spec(k) cong Spec(k)$. That is the map $Spec(M) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a normalization map since both have same function fields. Since $R$ being a dvr is already a normal ring, hence $Spec(M) xrightarrow{sim} Spec(R)$ is an isomorphism. That is $M cong R$. Thus one has



$mathcal{O}_Y rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



is an isomorphism. That is what was required.



All this is done in the following lemma. https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0AY8






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you, that's helpful.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 15:48















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Let $Y = Spec(R)$. Let us consider the map induced by $f$



$f : mathcal{O}_{Y} rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



Since $X$ is proper over $R$, we get that $M := f_*mathcal{O}_X$ is a finite module over $R$. Note that $M$ is also a reduced $R-$algebra. Consider the natural base change map $varphi^0(y)$ for $y in Y$ not necessarily closed point



$varphi^0(y) : R^0f_*mathcal{O}_X = f_*mathcal{O}_X otimes k(y)rightarrow H^0(X_y, mathcal{O}_{X_y})$



where $X_y$ is the fiber over the point $y$. For $y = Spec(k)$, the map $Spec(k) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a flat map and hence we know this map to be an isomorphism by flat base change theorem. Also note that $X_y$ is geometrically connected by hypothesis and hence $H^0(X_k, mathcal{O}_{X_k}) = k$. Thus we get that the $R-$module $M$ satisifes $M otimes k cong k$. More geometrically, this says $Spec(M) otimes Spec(k) cong Spec(k)$. That is the map $Spec(M) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a normalization map since both have same function fields. Since $R$ being a dvr is already a normal ring, hence $Spec(M) xrightarrow{sim} Spec(R)$ is an isomorphism. That is $M cong R$. Thus one has



$mathcal{O}_Y rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



is an isomorphism. That is what was required.



All this is done in the following lemma. https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0AY8






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you, that's helpful.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 15:48













up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Let $Y = Spec(R)$. Let us consider the map induced by $f$



$f : mathcal{O}_{Y} rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



Since $X$ is proper over $R$, we get that $M := f_*mathcal{O}_X$ is a finite module over $R$. Note that $M$ is also a reduced $R-$algebra. Consider the natural base change map $varphi^0(y)$ for $y in Y$ not necessarily closed point



$varphi^0(y) : R^0f_*mathcal{O}_X = f_*mathcal{O}_X otimes k(y)rightarrow H^0(X_y, mathcal{O}_{X_y})$



where $X_y$ is the fiber over the point $y$. For $y = Spec(k)$, the map $Spec(k) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a flat map and hence we know this map to be an isomorphism by flat base change theorem. Also note that $X_y$ is geometrically connected by hypothesis and hence $H^0(X_k, mathcal{O}_{X_k}) = k$. Thus we get that the $R-$module $M$ satisifes $M otimes k cong k$. More geometrically, this says $Spec(M) otimes Spec(k) cong Spec(k)$. That is the map $Spec(M) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a normalization map since both have same function fields. Since $R$ being a dvr is already a normal ring, hence $Spec(M) xrightarrow{sim} Spec(R)$ is an isomorphism. That is $M cong R$. Thus one has



$mathcal{O}_Y rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



is an isomorphism. That is what was required.



All this is done in the following lemma. https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0AY8






share|cite|improve this answer












Let $Y = Spec(R)$. Let us consider the map induced by $f$



$f : mathcal{O}_{Y} rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



Since $X$ is proper over $R$, we get that $M := f_*mathcal{O}_X$ is a finite module over $R$. Note that $M$ is also a reduced $R-$algebra. Consider the natural base change map $varphi^0(y)$ for $y in Y$ not necessarily closed point



$varphi^0(y) : R^0f_*mathcal{O}_X = f_*mathcal{O}_X otimes k(y)rightarrow H^0(X_y, mathcal{O}_{X_y})$



where $X_y$ is the fiber over the point $y$. For $y = Spec(k)$, the map $Spec(k) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a flat map and hence we know this map to be an isomorphism by flat base change theorem. Also note that $X_y$ is geometrically connected by hypothesis and hence $H^0(X_k, mathcal{O}_{X_k}) = k$. Thus we get that the $R-$module $M$ satisifes $M otimes k cong k$. More geometrically, this says $Spec(M) otimes Spec(k) cong Spec(k)$. That is the map $Spec(M) rightarrow Spec(R)$ is a normalization map since both have same function fields. Since $R$ being a dvr is already a normal ring, hence $Spec(M) xrightarrow{sim} Spec(R)$ is an isomorphism. That is $M cong R$. Thus one has



$mathcal{O}_Y rightarrow f_*mathcal{O}_X$



is an isomorphism. That is what was required.



All this is done in the following lemma. https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0AY8







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 27 at 11:09









random123

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  • Thank you, that's helpful.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 15:48


















  • Thank you, that's helpful.
    – zzy
    Nov 27 at 15:48
















Thank you, that's helpful.
– zzy
Nov 27 at 15:48




Thank you, that's helpful.
– zzy
Nov 27 at 15:48


















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