If A is permutable subgroup with B , then A is permutable with B's conjugate?











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Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?



Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.



Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have




If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.




so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.



but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is



Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.



Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$










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  • That sounds rather unlikely to me.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 27 at 4:04










  • Can you give me an example please?
    – H.koby
    Nov 27 at 4:05










  • Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 27 at 7:37

















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?



Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.



Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have




If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.




so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.



but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is



Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.



Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$










share|cite|improve this question
























  • That sounds rather unlikely to me.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 27 at 4:04










  • Can you give me an example please?
    – H.koby
    Nov 27 at 4:05










  • Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 27 at 7:37















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?



Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.



Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have




If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.




so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.



but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is



Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.



Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$










share|cite|improve this question















Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?



Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.



Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have




If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.




so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.



but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is



Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.



Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$







abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 27 at 18:21

























asked Nov 27 at 3:58









H.koby

407




407












  • That sounds rather unlikely to me.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 27 at 4:04










  • Can you give me an example please?
    – H.koby
    Nov 27 at 4:05










  • Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 27 at 7:37




















  • That sounds rather unlikely to me.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 27 at 4:04










  • Can you give me an example please?
    – H.koby
    Nov 27 at 4:05










  • Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 27 at 7:37


















That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04




That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04












Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05




Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05












Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37






Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37

















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