If A is permutable subgroup with B , then A is permutable with B's conjugate?
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Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?
Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.
Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have
If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.
so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.
but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is
Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.
Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
favorite
Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?
Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.
Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have
If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.
so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.
but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is
Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.
Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
favorite
up vote
-1
down vote
favorite
Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?
Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.
Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have
If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.
so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.
but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is
Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.
Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
Let $G$ be a finite group and $A,B, C le G$ subgroups.
How to prove that if $AB = BA$ ( permutable subgroups ) , and $C$ is conjugate of $B$ Then $AC = CA$ ? If not , can you give me a counter example?
Edit: Just need to check if my solution is correct.
Well I guess the statement is true for abelian groups since we have
If G is abelian, then $gag^{-1}= a$ for all a and g in G; so Cl(a) = {a} for all a in G.
so If $A$ and $B$ are permutable and $C$ is the conjugate of $B$ ( which equals $B$ ) then $A$ and $C$ are also perumtable.
but if the group was not abelian , the statement need not to be true.
and my example is
Let $G=$ $D_{3}= langle r,s mid r^3=s^2=1 , rs= sr^2 rangle$
and Let $B$ = $A = langle s rangle$
Then $AB = BA$.
Now the conjugate of $B$ : $C = langle sr rangle$ is not permutable with A since $$ AC= {1 , s , sr , r}$$
and $$ CA= {1 , s , sr , r^2 }$$
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups
edited Nov 27 at 18:21
asked Nov 27 at 3:58
H.koby
407
407
That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37
That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37
add a comment |
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That sounds rather unlikely to me.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 27 at 4:04
Can you give me an example please?
– H.koby
Nov 27 at 4:05
Hint: look for an example with $A=B$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 27 at 7:37