Is there a way to find $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ in terms of $tan a$ and $tan b$?











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I know $tan(a)$ and $tan(b)$. Is there a way that I can find $cos x$ and $cos y$ in term of $tan a$ and $tan b$, where $x=a+b$ and $y=a-b$?



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    I know $tan(a)$ and $tan(b)$. Is there a way that I can find $cos x$ and $cos y$ in term of $tan a$ and $tan b$, where $x=a+b$ and $y=a-b$?



    Thanks.










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      up vote
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      favorite









      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite











      I know $tan(a)$ and $tan(b)$. Is there a way that I can find $cos x$ and $cos y$ in term of $tan a$ and $tan b$, where $x=a+b$ and $y=a-b$?



      Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I know $tan(a)$ and $tan(b)$. Is there a way that I can find $cos x$ and $cos y$ in term of $tan a$ and $tan b$, where $x=a+b$ and $y=a-b$?



      Thanks.







      trigonometry






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      edited Nov 27 at 4:53









      Blue

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      asked Nov 27 at 4:50









      Asghar Razzaqi

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          $cos(a+b)=cos acos b- sin a sin b$



          Multiply by $frac{cos acos b}{cos acos b}$



          You'll get $$cos(a+b)=cos acos b- (cos acos b)(tan a tan b)$$



          Now substitute instead of $cos a=sqrt{frac{1}{1+tan^2 a}}$



          And you'll get that $$cos(a+b)=sqrt{frac{1}{(1+tan^2 a)(1+tan^2 b)}} (1-tan a tan b)$$



          It is a bit complicated as you see, you can try and do some simplifications, and there might be another easier method to do that, but thats what came into my mind now.






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            Strictly speaking, no. As $tan(x)=tan(x+kpi)$ for every integer $k$, you can only determine $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ up to a sign.






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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              $cos(a+b)=cos acos b- sin a sin b$



              Multiply by $frac{cos acos b}{cos acos b}$



              You'll get $$cos(a+b)=cos acos b- (cos acos b)(tan a tan b)$$



              Now substitute instead of $cos a=sqrt{frac{1}{1+tan^2 a}}$



              And you'll get that $$cos(a+b)=sqrt{frac{1}{(1+tan^2 a)(1+tan^2 b)}} (1-tan a tan b)$$



              It is a bit complicated as you see, you can try and do some simplifications, and there might be another easier method to do that, but thats what came into my mind now.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                3
                down vote



                accepted










                $cos(a+b)=cos acos b- sin a sin b$



                Multiply by $frac{cos acos b}{cos acos b}$



                You'll get $$cos(a+b)=cos acos b- (cos acos b)(tan a tan b)$$



                Now substitute instead of $cos a=sqrt{frac{1}{1+tan^2 a}}$



                And you'll get that $$cos(a+b)=sqrt{frac{1}{(1+tan^2 a)(1+tan^2 b)}} (1-tan a tan b)$$



                It is a bit complicated as you see, you can try and do some simplifications, and there might be another easier method to do that, but thats what came into my mind now.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  $cos(a+b)=cos acos b- sin a sin b$



                  Multiply by $frac{cos acos b}{cos acos b}$



                  You'll get $$cos(a+b)=cos acos b- (cos acos b)(tan a tan b)$$



                  Now substitute instead of $cos a=sqrt{frac{1}{1+tan^2 a}}$



                  And you'll get that $$cos(a+b)=sqrt{frac{1}{(1+tan^2 a)(1+tan^2 b)}} (1-tan a tan b)$$



                  It is a bit complicated as you see, you can try and do some simplifications, and there might be another easier method to do that, but thats what came into my mind now.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  $cos(a+b)=cos acos b- sin a sin b$



                  Multiply by $frac{cos acos b}{cos acos b}$



                  You'll get $$cos(a+b)=cos acos b- (cos acos b)(tan a tan b)$$



                  Now substitute instead of $cos a=sqrt{frac{1}{1+tan^2 a}}$



                  And you'll get that $$cos(a+b)=sqrt{frac{1}{(1+tan^2 a)(1+tan^2 b)}} (1-tan a tan b)$$



                  It is a bit complicated as you see, you can try and do some simplifications, and there might be another easier method to do that, but thats what came into my mind now.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 27 at 5:11

























                  answered Nov 27 at 5:06









                  Fareed AF

                  41711




                  41711






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Strictly speaking, no. As $tan(x)=tan(x+kpi)$ for every integer $k$, you can only determine $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ up to a sign.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Strictly speaking, no. As $tan(x)=tan(x+kpi)$ for every integer $k$, you can only determine $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ up to a sign.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          Strictly speaking, no. As $tan(x)=tan(x+kpi)$ for every integer $k$, you can only determine $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ up to a sign.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Strictly speaking, no. As $tan(x)=tan(x+kpi)$ for every integer $k$, you can only determine $cos(a+b)$ and $cos(a-b)$ up to a sign.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 27 at 5:51









                          William McGonagall

                          1337




                          1337






























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