Proving Uniform Convergence of a Series of Functions











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm working on the following problem:



Series of functions f equals the summation from n=1 to infinity of 1 over n times x minus n



I've observed that division of zero will occur in a single term of the series if a natural number is selected, which is why that constraint is given.



I've computed a few terms manually for x=1.1, and I can see that the terms' absolute values get smaller quite rapidly.



So, it does appear that the series will converge. My tools to prove this thus far are the M-test and the Cauchy Condition, but I'm unsure if either is suitable in this case. I was also thinking about finding another series of functions that also converges, but has larger terms than the one in this series of functions.



Any assistance would be appreciated. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
    – RRL
    Nov 26 at 3:17












  • Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
    – Justin
    Nov 26 at 20:06










  • I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:40















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm working on the following problem:



Series of functions f equals the summation from n=1 to infinity of 1 over n times x minus n



I've observed that division of zero will occur in a single term of the series if a natural number is selected, which is why that constraint is given.



I've computed a few terms manually for x=1.1, and I can see that the terms' absolute values get smaller quite rapidly.



So, it does appear that the series will converge. My tools to prove this thus far are the M-test and the Cauchy Condition, but I'm unsure if either is suitable in this case. I was also thinking about finding another series of functions that also converges, but has larger terms than the one in this series of functions.



Any assistance would be appreciated. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
    – RRL
    Nov 26 at 3:17












  • Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
    – Justin
    Nov 26 at 20:06










  • I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:40













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm working on the following problem:



Series of functions f equals the summation from n=1 to infinity of 1 over n times x minus n



I've observed that division of zero will occur in a single term of the series if a natural number is selected, which is why that constraint is given.



I've computed a few terms manually for x=1.1, and I can see that the terms' absolute values get smaller quite rapidly.



So, it does appear that the series will converge. My tools to prove this thus far are the M-test and the Cauchy Condition, but I'm unsure if either is suitable in this case. I was also thinking about finding another series of functions that also converges, but has larger terms than the one in this series of functions.



Any assistance would be appreciated. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question













I'm working on the following problem:



Series of functions f equals the summation from n=1 to infinity of 1 over n times x minus n



I've observed that division of zero will occur in a single term of the series if a natural number is selected, which is why that constraint is given.



I've computed a few terms manually for x=1.1, and I can see that the terms' absolute values get smaller quite rapidly.



So, it does appear that the series will converge. My tools to prove this thus far are the M-test and the Cauchy Condition, but I'm unsure if either is suitable in this case. I was also thinking about finding another series of functions that also converges, but has larger terms than the one in this series of functions.



Any assistance would be appreciated. Thank you!







real-analysis sequences-and-series uniform-convergence






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 26 at 1:43









Justin

316




316








  • 1




    Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
    – RRL
    Nov 26 at 3:17












  • Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
    – Justin
    Nov 26 at 20:06










  • I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:40














  • 1




    Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
    – RRL
    Nov 26 at 3:17












  • Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
    – Justin
    Nov 26 at 20:06










  • I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:40








1




1




Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
– RRL
Nov 26 at 3:17






Hint: M-test. For all sufficiently large $n$, $$left|frac{1}{n(x-n)} right| leqslant frac{1}{n(n-b)}$$
– RRL
Nov 26 at 3:17














Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
– Justin
Nov 26 at 20:06




Thanks! I'll work getting an M-test to work with that inequality.
– Justin
Nov 26 at 20:06












I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
– Justin
Nov 28 at 4:40




I spoke with my Professor, and he agreed with you, although he mentioned that I'd need to use cases, as TheD0ubleT did.
– Justin
Nov 28 at 4:40










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










A variant of a preceding answer, since it's almost impossible to do something extremely different:



For $nin Bbb N$ let $g_n=sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/j^2.$ We have $lim_{nto infty}g_n=0.$



Let $cin Bbb N$ with $cgeqmax (|a|,|b|).$ For $c<jin Bbb N$ and for any $xin [a,b]$ we have $$|j(x-j)|=j|j-x|geq j(|j|-|x|)=j(j-|x|)geq j(j-c)geq (j-c)^2.$$



So if $c<nin Bbb N$ then $$sup_{nleq n_1leq n_2}|sum_{j=n_1}^{n_2}1/j(x-j)|leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}|1/j(x-j)|leq$$ $$leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/(j-c)^2=g_{n-c}.$$



And $g_{n-c}to 0$ as $nto infty.$ So the series represented by $f$ satisfies the Cauchy Condition for convergence at each $xin [a,b]$ so it converges to some $f(x).$



And for $n>c$ we have $$lim_{c<nto infty}sup_{xin [a,b]}|f(x)-sum_{j=1}^n 1/j(x-j)|leq lim_{c<nto infty}g_{1+n-c}=0$$ so the convergence is uniform.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you for the answer.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 17:47


















up vote
2
down vote













You can build a series $u_n$ which is always bigger than $|frac{1}{n(x-n)}|$

We know that $exists ninBbb{N}, n<a<b<n+1$ because there are no natural numbers in $[a,b]$

Thus, $forall n in Bbb{N^*}, forall xin[a,b], |frac{1}{n(x-n)}|le {begin{matrix}frac{1}{n(a-n)} if n<a \ frac{1}{n(n-b)} if n>b end{matrix} = u_n$

The series we just created always converges because the series is always positive and $u_nsimfrac{1}{n^2}$



$sim$ means "equivalent". It's an asymptotic analysis of a series or function Wiki article here






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:38










  • It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
    – TheD0ubleT
    Nov 28 at 8:16











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3013693%2fproving-uniform-convergence-of-a-series-of-functions%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










A variant of a preceding answer, since it's almost impossible to do something extremely different:



For $nin Bbb N$ let $g_n=sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/j^2.$ We have $lim_{nto infty}g_n=0.$



Let $cin Bbb N$ with $cgeqmax (|a|,|b|).$ For $c<jin Bbb N$ and for any $xin [a,b]$ we have $$|j(x-j)|=j|j-x|geq j(|j|-|x|)=j(j-|x|)geq j(j-c)geq (j-c)^2.$$



So if $c<nin Bbb N$ then $$sup_{nleq n_1leq n_2}|sum_{j=n_1}^{n_2}1/j(x-j)|leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}|1/j(x-j)|leq$$ $$leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/(j-c)^2=g_{n-c}.$$



And $g_{n-c}to 0$ as $nto infty.$ So the series represented by $f$ satisfies the Cauchy Condition for convergence at each $xin [a,b]$ so it converges to some $f(x).$



And for $n>c$ we have $$lim_{c<nto infty}sup_{xin [a,b]}|f(x)-sum_{j=1}^n 1/j(x-j)|leq lim_{c<nto infty}g_{1+n-c}=0$$ so the convergence is uniform.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you for the answer.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 17:47















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










A variant of a preceding answer, since it's almost impossible to do something extremely different:



For $nin Bbb N$ let $g_n=sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/j^2.$ We have $lim_{nto infty}g_n=0.$



Let $cin Bbb N$ with $cgeqmax (|a|,|b|).$ For $c<jin Bbb N$ and for any $xin [a,b]$ we have $$|j(x-j)|=j|j-x|geq j(|j|-|x|)=j(j-|x|)geq j(j-c)geq (j-c)^2.$$



So if $c<nin Bbb N$ then $$sup_{nleq n_1leq n_2}|sum_{j=n_1}^{n_2}1/j(x-j)|leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}|1/j(x-j)|leq$$ $$leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/(j-c)^2=g_{n-c}.$$



And $g_{n-c}to 0$ as $nto infty.$ So the series represented by $f$ satisfies the Cauchy Condition for convergence at each $xin [a,b]$ so it converges to some $f(x).$



And for $n>c$ we have $$lim_{c<nto infty}sup_{xin [a,b]}|f(x)-sum_{j=1}^n 1/j(x-j)|leq lim_{c<nto infty}g_{1+n-c}=0$$ so the convergence is uniform.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you for the answer.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 17:47













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






A variant of a preceding answer, since it's almost impossible to do something extremely different:



For $nin Bbb N$ let $g_n=sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/j^2.$ We have $lim_{nto infty}g_n=0.$



Let $cin Bbb N$ with $cgeqmax (|a|,|b|).$ For $c<jin Bbb N$ and for any $xin [a,b]$ we have $$|j(x-j)|=j|j-x|geq j(|j|-|x|)=j(j-|x|)geq j(j-c)geq (j-c)^2.$$



So if $c<nin Bbb N$ then $$sup_{nleq n_1leq n_2}|sum_{j=n_1}^{n_2}1/j(x-j)|leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}|1/j(x-j)|leq$$ $$leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/(j-c)^2=g_{n-c}.$$



And $g_{n-c}to 0$ as $nto infty.$ So the series represented by $f$ satisfies the Cauchy Condition for convergence at each $xin [a,b]$ so it converges to some $f(x).$



And for $n>c$ we have $$lim_{c<nto infty}sup_{xin [a,b]}|f(x)-sum_{j=1}^n 1/j(x-j)|leq lim_{c<nto infty}g_{1+n-c}=0$$ so the convergence is uniform.






share|cite|improve this answer














A variant of a preceding answer, since it's almost impossible to do something extremely different:



For $nin Bbb N$ let $g_n=sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/j^2.$ We have $lim_{nto infty}g_n=0.$



Let $cin Bbb N$ with $cgeqmax (|a|,|b|).$ For $c<jin Bbb N$ and for any $xin [a,b]$ we have $$|j(x-j)|=j|j-x|geq j(|j|-|x|)=j(j-|x|)geq j(j-c)geq (j-c)^2.$$



So if $c<nin Bbb N$ then $$sup_{nleq n_1leq n_2}|sum_{j=n_1}^{n_2}1/j(x-j)|leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}|1/j(x-j)|leq$$ $$leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}1/(j-c)^2=g_{n-c}.$$



And $g_{n-c}to 0$ as $nto infty.$ So the series represented by $f$ satisfies the Cauchy Condition for convergence at each $xin [a,b]$ so it converges to some $f(x).$



And for $n>c$ we have $$lim_{c<nto infty}sup_{xin [a,b]}|f(x)-sum_{j=1}^n 1/j(x-j)|leq lim_{c<nto infty}g_{1+n-c}=0$$ so the convergence is uniform.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 28 at 14:37

























answered Nov 28 at 14:18









DanielWainfleet

33.7k31647




33.7k31647












  • Thank you for the answer.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 17:47


















  • Thank you for the answer.
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 17:47
















Thank you for the answer.
– Justin
Nov 28 at 17:47




Thank you for the answer.
– Justin
Nov 28 at 17:47










up vote
2
down vote













You can build a series $u_n$ which is always bigger than $|frac{1}{n(x-n)}|$

We know that $exists ninBbb{N}, n<a<b<n+1$ because there are no natural numbers in $[a,b]$

Thus, $forall n in Bbb{N^*}, forall xin[a,b], |frac{1}{n(x-n)}|le {begin{matrix}frac{1}{n(a-n)} if n<a \ frac{1}{n(n-b)} if n>b end{matrix} = u_n$

The series we just created always converges because the series is always positive and $u_nsimfrac{1}{n^2}$



$sim$ means "equivalent". It's an asymptotic analysis of a series or function Wiki article here






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:38










  • It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
    – TheD0ubleT
    Nov 28 at 8:16















up vote
2
down vote













You can build a series $u_n$ which is always bigger than $|frac{1}{n(x-n)}|$

We know that $exists ninBbb{N}, n<a<b<n+1$ because there are no natural numbers in $[a,b]$

Thus, $forall n in Bbb{N^*}, forall xin[a,b], |frac{1}{n(x-n)}|le {begin{matrix}frac{1}{n(a-n)} if n<a \ frac{1}{n(n-b)} if n>b end{matrix} = u_n$

The series we just created always converges because the series is always positive and $u_nsimfrac{1}{n^2}$



$sim$ means "equivalent". It's an asymptotic analysis of a series or function Wiki article here






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:38










  • It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
    – TheD0ubleT
    Nov 28 at 8:16













up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









You can build a series $u_n$ which is always bigger than $|frac{1}{n(x-n)}|$

We know that $exists ninBbb{N}, n<a<b<n+1$ because there are no natural numbers in $[a,b]$

Thus, $forall n in Bbb{N^*}, forall xin[a,b], |frac{1}{n(x-n)}|le {begin{matrix}frac{1}{n(a-n)} if n<a \ frac{1}{n(n-b)} if n>b end{matrix} = u_n$

The series we just created always converges because the series is always positive and $u_nsimfrac{1}{n^2}$



$sim$ means "equivalent". It's an asymptotic analysis of a series or function Wiki article here






share|cite|improve this answer














You can build a series $u_n$ which is always bigger than $|frac{1}{n(x-n)}|$

We know that $exists ninBbb{N}, n<a<b<n+1$ because there are no natural numbers in $[a,b]$

Thus, $forall n in Bbb{N^*}, forall xin[a,b], |frac{1}{n(x-n)}|le {begin{matrix}frac{1}{n(a-n)} if n<a \ frac{1}{n(n-b)} if n>b end{matrix} = u_n$

The series we just created always converges because the series is always positive and $u_nsimfrac{1}{n^2}$



$sim$ means "equivalent". It's an asymptotic analysis of a series or function Wiki article here







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 28 at 9:14

























answered Nov 26 at 9:45









TheD0ubleT

38118




38118












  • Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:38










  • It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
    – TheD0ubleT
    Nov 28 at 8:16


















  • Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
    – Justin
    Nov 28 at 4:38










  • It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
    – TheD0ubleT
    Nov 28 at 8:16
















Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
– Justin
Nov 28 at 4:38




Thanks for the answer. I believe you, that the series you built is convergent, but is there a more rigorous way to show that it converges other than "it converges because it approximates one over n-squared?"
– Justin
Nov 28 at 4:38












It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 28 at 8:16




It is rigorous, because $u_n sim frac {1}{n^2}$ implies that $$exists n_0inBbb{N}, forall n > n_0, frac 12*frac {1}{n^2}le u_nle frac 32*frac {1}{n^2}$$ Thus if $sum frac {1}{n^2}$ converges then so does $sum u_n$
– TheD0ubleT
Nov 28 at 8:16


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3013693%2fproving-uniform-convergence-of-a-series-of-functions%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Berounka

Sphinx de Gizeh

Different font size/position of beamer's navigation symbols template's content depending on regular/plain...