Relation between range of adjoint of T and kernal of T.











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I was given two problems in homework



Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,

Prove the following

(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $

(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $



The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint



Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $



I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?










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  • 1




    I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
    – Ruchit Patel
    Nov 24 at 15:04















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I was given two problems in homework



Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,

Prove the following

(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $

(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $



The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint



Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $



I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
    – Ruchit Patel
    Nov 24 at 15:04













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I was given two problems in homework



Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,

Prove the following

(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $

(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $



The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint



Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $



I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?










share|cite|improve this question















I was given two problems in homework



Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,

Prove the following

(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $

(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $



The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint



Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$



From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $



I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?







linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators






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edited Nov 24 at 15:00

























asked Nov 24 at 14:28









Ruchit Patel

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  • 1




    I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
    – Ruchit Patel
    Nov 24 at 15:04














  • 1




    I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
    – Ruchit Patel
    Nov 24 at 15:04








1




1




I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04




I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04










1 Answer
1






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Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.



Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.






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    Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.



    Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.






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      up vote
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      down vote













      Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.



      Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.






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        up vote
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        down vote









        Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.



        Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.



        Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 24 at 22:17

























        answered Nov 24 at 16:12









        Berci

        59.2k23671




        59.2k23671






























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