Relation between range of adjoint of T and kernal of T.
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I was given two problems in homework
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,
Prove the following
(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $
The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint
Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?
linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators
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up vote
1
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I was given two problems in homework
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,
Prove the following
(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $
The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint
Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?
linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators
1
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I was given two problems in homework
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,
Prove the following
(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $
The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint
Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?
linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators
I was given two problems in homework
Let $V$ be a finite dimensional inner product space and $T$ be a linear operator on it then,
Prove the following
(1) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
(2) $ operatorname{range}$$ ({T^{dagger}}) = ker(T)^{perp}$$ $
The first one was proved using following method, from the definition of adjoint
Let $x$ ${in} $ ${ker}(V)$ and $y {in} V$, then we have
$$ 0 = <Tx,y> = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
So,as the dot product is zero, we can say that,
$$ 0 = <x,T^{dagger}y>$$
From above identity, we say that, $ operatorname{range}$$({T^{dagger}})^{perp} = ker(T)$$ $
I am stuck at problem 2, by similar method, I am not getting to the answer. What can be other method?
linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators
linear-algebra inner-product-space adjoint-operators
edited Nov 24 at 15:00
asked Nov 24 at 14:28
Ruchit Patel
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112
1
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04
add a comment |
1
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04
1
1
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.
Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.
Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
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Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.
Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.
Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.
Hint: You can take the orthogonal complement on both sides. All you have to prove is that $U^{perpperp}=U$ for any subspace $U$ in a finite dimensional space.
Note that only the inclusion $(mathrm{ran} T^dagger)^perp supseteq ker T$ is rigorously proved here, but the other inclusion also holds by the same equality, since if $xperpmathrm{ran} T^dagger$ then for all $y$, we have $0=langle x, T^dagger yrangle=langle Tx, yrangle$, so $Tx$ must be $0$.
edited Nov 24 at 22:17
answered Nov 24 at 16:12
Berci
59.2k23671
59.2k23671
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1
I am not sure, whether I can take perp on both sides so that complement gets cancelled with complement
– Ruchit Patel
Nov 24 at 15:04