Solution to infinite product $prod_{p-primes}^{infty} frac{p}{p-1}$











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I want to find the $prod_{p-primes}^{infty} frac{p}{p-1}$. This question stems from a question from amc 12a 2018. It goes as follows: Let $A$ be the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than $2$, $3$, or $5$. The infinite sum
$$frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + frac{1}{8} + frac{1}{9} + frac{1}{10} + frac{1}{12} + frac{1}{15} + frac{1}{16} + frac{1}{18} + frac{1}{20} + cdots$$
of the reciprocals of the elements of $A$ can be expressed as $frac{m}{n}$, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers. What is $m+n$? Through some working out you can work out that the solution to this question is $sum_0^infty frac{1}{2^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{3^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{5^n}$, simple power series multiplication. But I started to wonder what the sum would be if $A$ was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes. I think that the product will converge since $sum_1^infty log(a_n)$ seems to converge, but hey I could be wrong.










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    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
    – R. Burton
    Nov 24 at 15:19















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I want to find the $prod_{p-primes}^{infty} frac{p}{p-1}$. This question stems from a question from amc 12a 2018. It goes as follows: Let $A$ be the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than $2$, $3$, or $5$. The infinite sum
$$frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + frac{1}{8} + frac{1}{9} + frac{1}{10} + frac{1}{12} + frac{1}{15} + frac{1}{16} + frac{1}{18} + frac{1}{20} + cdots$$
of the reciprocals of the elements of $A$ can be expressed as $frac{m}{n}$, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers. What is $m+n$? Through some working out you can work out that the solution to this question is $sum_0^infty frac{1}{2^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{3^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{5^n}$, simple power series multiplication. But I started to wonder what the sum would be if $A$ was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes. I think that the product will converge since $sum_1^infty log(a_n)$ seems to converge, but hey I could be wrong.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
    – R. Burton
    Nov 24 at 15:19













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
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1





I want to find the $prod_{p-primes}^{infty} frac{p}{p-1}$. This question stems from a question from amc 12a 2018. It goes as follows: Let $A$ be the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than $2$, $3$, or $5$. The infinite sum
$$frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + frac{1}{8} + frac{1}{9} + frac{1}{10} + frac{1}{12} + frac{1}{15} + frac{1}{16} + frac{1}{18} + frac{1}{20} + cdots$$
of the reciprocals of the elements of $A$ can be expressed as $frac{m}{n}$, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers. What is $m+n$? Through some working out you can work out that the solution to this question is $sum_0^infty frac{1}{2^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{3^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{5^n}$, simple power series multiplication. But I started to wonder what the sum would be if $A$ was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes. I think that the product will converge since $sum_1^infty log(a_n)$ seems to converge, but hey I could be wrong.










share|cite|improve this question













I want to find the $prod_{p-primes}^{infty} frac{p}{p-1}$. This question stems from a question from amc 12a 2018. It goes as follows: Let $A$ be the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than $2$, $3$, or $5$. The infinite sum
$$frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + frac{1}{8} + frac{1}{9} + frac{1}{10} + frac{1}{12} + frac{1}{15} + frac{1}{16} + frac{1}{18} + frac{1}{20} + cdots$$
of the reciprocals of the elements of $A$ can be expressed as $frac{m}{n}$, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers. What is $m+n$? Through some working out you can work out that the solution to this question is $sum_0^infty frac{1}{2^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{3^n}$$sum_0^infty frac{1}{5^n}$, simple power series multiplication. But I started to wonder what the sum would be if $A$ was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes. I think that the product will converge since $sum_1^infty log(a_n)$ seems to converge, but hey I could be wrong.







sequences-and-series infinite-product






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asked Nov 24 at 15:07









Suchetan Dontha

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  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
    – R. Burton
    Nov 24 at 15:19














  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
    – R. Burton
    Nov 24 at 15:19








1




1




en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
– R. Burton
Nov 24 at 15:19




en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_product
– R. Burton
Nov 24 at 15:19










3 Answers
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You write "But I started to wonder what the sum would be if A
was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes". Since any natural number can be written as a product of primes (unique up to reordering the factors) your set A will in this case be all natural numbers. So in this case your product can (in a formal sense) be rewritten as
$$ prod_{primes}frac{p}{p-1} = prod_{primes}frac{1}{1-1/p} = prod_{primes}sum_{i=0}^{infty} frac{1}{p^i} = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n} $$
To make sense of this formal manipulation, you could look at the function
$$ zeta(s) = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^s} = prod_{primes}frac{p^s}{p^s-1} , (s>1)$$
which is known as the Riemann zeta function - and arguably the most famous function in all of mathematics. Your product would then correspond to the value of the Riemann zeta function as 1. As mentioned above the Riemann zeta-function has a pole at one (i.e. it is infinite), but one can could try to look at the asymptotic expansion of the sum
$$ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$$
as $N$ goes to infinity. In this case something interesting does happen, namely
$$ lim_{N} (sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n} - ln(N)) = gamma$$
where $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Now in your case one could argue that one should look not at the asymptotic expansion of $ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$, but rather at the asymptotic expansion of
$$ prod_{p prime}^{p < N}frac{p}{p-1}$$
but I would expect the answer to be the same. In short - even though the product diverges doesn't mean something cool won't happen along the way.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 16:23


















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3
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${pover p-1}=1+{1over p-1}>1+frac1p$ and the sum of the reciprocals of the primes diverges, so the given product also diverges.






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  • Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 15:27


















up vote
0
down vote













An alternative approach: $frac{p}{p-1}geq 1+frac{1}{p}$ gives
$$ prod_{p}frac{p}{p-1}geq prod_{p}left(1+frac{1}{p}right) =!!!!!!!! sum_{substack{ngeq 1\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!!!!frac{1}{n} $$
but since the set of squarefree numbers has a positive density in $mathbb{N}$ ($frac{6}{pi^2}$, which is also the probability that two "random integers" are coprime), by summation by parts it follows that
$$sum_{substack{1leq nleq N\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!frac{1}{n}=O(1)+frac{6}{pi^2}sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n}=frac{6}{pi^2}log(N)+O(1) $$
so the original product is divergent.






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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    You write "But I started to wonder what the sum would be if A
    was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes". Since any natural number can be written as a product of primes (unique up to reordering the factors) your set A will in this case be all natural numbers. So in this case your product can (in a formal sense) be rewritten as
    $$ prod_{primes}frac{p}{p-1} = prod_{primes}frac{1}{1-1/p} = prod_{primes}sum_{i=0}^{infty} frac{1}{p^i} = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n} $$
    To make sense of this formal manipulation, you could look at the function
    $$ zeta(s) = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^s} = prod_{primes}frac{p^s}{p^s-1} , (s>1)$$
    which is known as the Riemann zeta function - and arguably the most famous function in all of mathematics. Your product would then correspond to the value of the Riemann zeta function as 1. As mentioned above the Riemann zeta-function has a pole at one (i.e. it is infinite), but one can could try to look at the asymptotic expansion of the sum
    $$ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$$
    as $N$ goes to infinity. In this case something interesting does happen, namely
    $$ lim_{N} (sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n} - ln(N)) = gamma$$
    where $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Now in your case one could argue that one should look not at the asymptotic expansion of $ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$, but rather at the asymptotic expansion of
    $$ prod_{p prime}^{p < N}frac{p}{p-1}$$
    but I would expect the answer to be the same. In short - even though the product diverges doesn't mean something cool won't happen along the way.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 16:23















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    You write "But I started to wonder what the sum would be if A
    was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes". Since any natural number can be written as a product of primes (unique up to reordering the factors) your set A will in this case be all natural numbers. So in this case your product can (in a formal sense) be rewritten as
    $$ prod_{primes}frac{p}{p-1} = prod_{primes}frac{1}{1-1/p} = prod_{primes}sum_{i=0}^{infty} frac{1}{p^i} = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n} $$
    To make sense of this formal manipulation, you could look at the function
    $$ zeta(s) = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^s} = prod_{primes}frac{p^s}{p^s-1} , (s>1)$$
    which is known as the Riemann zeta function - and arguably the most famous function in all of mathematics. Your product would then correspond to the value of the Riemann zeta function as 1. As mentioned above the Riemann zeta-function has a pole at one (i.e. it is infinite), but one can could try to look at the asymptotic expansion of the sum
    $$ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$$
    as $N$ goes to infinity. In this case something interesting does happen, namely
    $$ lim_{N} (sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n} - ln(N)) = gamma$$
    where $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Now in your case one could argue that one should look not at the asymptotic expansion of $ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$, but rather at the asymptotic expansion of
    $$ prod_{p prime}^{p < N}frac{p}{p-1}$$
    but I would expect the answer to be the same. In short - even though the product diverges doesn't mean something cool won't happen along the way.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 16:23













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    You write "But I started to wonder what the sum would be if A
    was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes". Since any natural number can be written as a product of primes (unique up to reordering the factors) your set A will in this case be all natural numbers. So in this case your product can (in a formal sense) be rewritten as
    $$ prod_{primes}frac{p}{p-1} = prod_{primes}frac{1}{1-1/p} = prod_{primes}sum_{i=0}^{infty} frac{1}{p^i} = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n} $$
    To make sense of this formal manipulation, you could look at the function
    $$ zeta(s) = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^s} = prod_{primes}frac{p^s}{p^s-1} , (s>1)$$
    which is known as the Riemann zeta function - and arguably the most famous function in all of mathematics. Your product would then correspond to the value of the Riemann zeta function as 1. As mentioned above the Riemann zeta-function has a pole at one (i.e. it is infinite), but one can could try to look at the asymptotic expansion of the sum
    $$ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$$
    as $N$ goes to infinity. In this case something interesting does happen, namely
    $$ lim_{N} (sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n} - ln(N)) = gamma$$
    where $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Now in your case one could argue that one should look not at the asymptotic expansion of $ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$, but rather at the asymptotic expansion of
    $$ prod_{p prime}^{p < N}frac{p}{p-1}$$
    but I would expect the answer to be the same. In short - even though the product diverges doesn't mean something cool won't happen along the way.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    You write "But I started to wonder what the sum would be if A
    was the set of positive integers that have no prime factors other than all primes". Since any natural number can be written as a product of primes (unique up to reordering the factors) your set A will in this case be all natural numbers. So in this case your product can (in a formal sense) be rewritten as
    $$ prod_{primes}frac{p}{p-1} = prod_{primes}frac{1}{1-1/p} = prod_{primes}sum_{i=0}^{infty} frac{1}{p^i} = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n} $$
    To make sense of this formal manipulation, you could look at the function
    $$ zeta(s) = sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^s} = prod_{primes}frac{p^s}{p^s-1} , (s>1)$$
    which is known as the Riemann zeta function - and arguably the most famous function in all of mathematics. Your product would then correspond to the value of the Riemann zeta function as 1. As mentioned above the Riemann zeta-function has a pole at one (i.e. it is infinite), but one can could try to look at the asymptotic expansion of the sum
    $$ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$$
    as $N$ goes to infinity. In this case something interesting does happen, namely
    $$ lim_{N} (sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n} - ln(N)) = gamma$$
    where $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Now in your case one could argue that one should look not at the asymptotic expansion of $ sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{n}$, but rather at the asymptotic expansion of
    $$ prod_{p prime}^{p < N}frac{p}{p-1}$$
    but I would expect the answer to be the same. In short - even though the product diverges doesn't mean something cool won't happen along the way.







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    answered Nov 24 at 16:12









    Testcase

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    • Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 16:23


















    • Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 16:23
















    Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 16:23




    Thank you for your response. I can't believe that I didn't recognize the product as the prime interpretation of the zeta function, thank you for pointing that out. Looking back now its pretty obvious that what I was asking for was the harmonic series. But I will look into the Euler-Mascheroni constant. I've seen it before and wondered how to get it.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 16:23










    up vote
    3
    down vote













    ${pover p-1}=1+{1over p-1}>1+frac1p$ and the sum of the reciprocals of the primes diverges, so the given product also diverges.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 15:27















    up vote
    3
    down vote













    ${pover p-1}=1+{1over p-1}>1+frac1p$ and the sum of the reciprocals of the primes diverges, so the given product also diverges.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 15:27













    up vote
    3
    down vote










    up vote
    3
    down vote









    ${pover p-1}=1+{1over p-1}>1+frac1p$ and the sum of the reciprocals of the primes diverges, so the given product also diverges.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    ${pover p-1}=1+{1over p-1}>1+frac1p$ and the sum of the reciprocals of the primes diverges, so the given product also diverges.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 24 at 15:24









    saulspatz

    13.3k21327




    13.3k21327












    • Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 15:27


















    • Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
      – Suchetan Dontha
      Nov 24 at 15:27
















    Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 15:27




    Thanks for your answer. I was hoping something cool would happen but I guess not.
    – Suchetan Dontha
    Nov 24 at 15:27










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    An alternative approach: $frac{p}{p-1}geq 1+frac{1}{p}$ gives
    $$ prod_{p}frac{p}{p-1}geq prod_{p}left(1+frac{1}{p}right) =!!!!!!!! sum_{substack{ngeq 1\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!!!!frac{1}{n} $$
    but since the set of squarefree numbers has a positive density in $mathbb{N}$ ($frac{6}{pi^2}$, which is also the probability that two "random integers" are coprime), by summation by parts it follows that
    $$sum_{substack{1leq nleq N\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!frac{1}{n}=O(1)+frac{6}{pi^2}sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n}=frac{6}{pi^2}log(N)+O(1) $$
    so the original product is divergent.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      An alternative approach: $frac{p}{p-1}geq 1+frac{1}{p}$ gives
      $$ prod_{p}frac{p}{p-1}geq prod_{p}left(1+frac{1}{p}right) =!!!!!!!! sum_{substack{ngeq 1\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!!!!frac{1}{n} $$
      but since the set of squarefree numbers has a positive density in $mathbb{N}$ ($frac{6}{pi^2}$, which is also the probability that two "random integers" are coprime), by summation by parts it follows that
      $$sum_{substack{1leq nleq N\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!frac{1}{n}=O(1)+frac{6}{pi^2}sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n}=frac{6}{pi^2}log(N)+O(1) $$
      so the original product is divergent.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        An alternative approach: $frac{p}{p-1}geq 1+frac{1}{p}$ gives
        $$ prod_{p}frac{p}{p-1}geq prod_{p}left(1+frac{1}{p}right) =!!!!!!!! sum_{substack{ngeq 1\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!!!!frac{1}{n} $$
        but since the set of squarefree numbers has a positive density in $mathbb{N}$ ($frac{6}{pi^2}$, which is also the probability that two "random integers" are coprime), by summation by parts it follows that
        $$sum_{substack{1leq nleq N\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!frac{1}{n}=O(1)+frac{6}{pi^2}sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n}=frac{6}{pi^2}log(N)+O(1) $$
        so the original product is divergent.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        An alternative approach: $frac{p}{p-1}geq 1+frac{1}{p}$ gives
        $$ prod_{p}frac{p}{p-1}geq prod_{p}left(1+frac{1}{p}right) =!!!!!!!! sum_{substack{ngeq 1\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!!!!frac{1}{n} $$
        but since the set of squarefree numbers has a positive density in $mathbb{N}$ ($frac{6}{pi^2}$, which is also the probability that two "random integers" are coprime), by summation by parts it follows that
        $$sum_{substack{1leq nleq N\ntext{ squarefree}}}!!!!frac{1}{n}=O(1)+frac{6}{pi^2}sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{1}{n}=frac{6}{pi^2}log(N)+O(1) $$
        so the original product is divergent.







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        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 24 at 18:24









        Jack D'Aurizio

        284k33275653




        284k33275653






























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