If $f$ complex polynomial such that $f(z) in mathbb{R}$ for all $|z| = 1$, then $f$ is constant.
up vote
5
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Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
complex-analysis polynomials
edited Nov 28 at 18:37
Brahadeesh
6,08242360
6,08242360
asked Nov 28 at 16:26
674123173797 - 4
1407
1407
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33
add a comment |
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
edited Nov 28 at 18:31
answered Nov 28 at 18:21
Brahadeesh
6,08242360
6,08242360
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
answered Nov 28 at 22:25
Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
62.3k1383162
62.3k1383162
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
edited Nov 28 at 22:54
answered Nov 28 at 17:16
Matematleta
9,8222918
9,8222918
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
edited Dec 1 at 22:36
answered Nov 28 at 22:26
GEdgar
61.4k267167
61.4k267167
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
add a comment |
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:28
1
1
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
– GEdgar
Nov 28 at 22:33
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:37
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 at 22:02
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Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 at 18:30
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
– Matematleta
Nov 28 at 22:33