Union of a finite set and a countably infinite set is countably infinite











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Ok, here is the problem statement:




Prove that if $S$ is any finite set of real numbers, then the union of $S$ and the integers is countably infinite.




This seems pretty obvious to me, knowing that 2 countable sets are countable. But is there some step by step way to prove this? Like do I need to prove bijectivity or something? Thanks!










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  • What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
    – Ian Coley
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:30















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Ok, here is the problem statement:




Prove that if $S$ is any finite set of real numbers, then the union of $S$ and the integers is countably infinite.




This seems pretty obvious to me, knowing that 2 countable sets are countable. But is there some step by step way to prove this? Like do I need to prove bijectivity or something? Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
    – Ian Coley
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:30













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Ok, here is the problem statement:




Prove that if $S$ is any finite set of real numbers, then the union of $S$ and the integers is countably infinite.




This seems pretty obvious to me, knowing that 2 countable sets are countable. But is there some step by step way to prove this? Like do I need to prove bijectivity or something? Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question















Ok, here is the problem statement:




Prove that if $S$ is any finite set of real numbers, then the union of $S$ and the integers is countably infinite.




This seems pretty obvious to me, knowing that 2 countable sets are countable. But is there some step by step way to prove this? Like do I need to prove bijectivity or something? Thanks!







elementary-set-theory






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edited Apr 7 '13 at 23:30









Zev Chonoles

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asked Apr 7 '13 at 23:26









user69839

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  • What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
    – Ian Coley
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:30


















  • What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
    – Ian Coley
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:30
















What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
– Ian Coley
Apr 7 '13 at 23:30




What are the options for the cardinality for our set $A=Scupmathbb Z$? It's certainly not finite, since $|A|geq |mathbb Z|$. Could it be uncountably infinite?
– Ian Coley
Apr 7 '13 at 23:30










2 Answers
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Yes, give a bijection between $Bbb N$ and $Bbb Zcup S$, that is a sequence in the latter which uses each element exactly once.



Say, $SsetminusBbb Z={s_1,..,s_k}$. Then for example this sequence gives a bijection:
$$(s_1,s_2,...,s_k,0,1,-1,2,-2,3,-3,4,-4,dots)$$
That is, $1$ will be mapped to $s_1$, $k+1$ will be mapped to $0$, $k+2$ to $1$, and so on...






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  • Thank you! I think I got it
    – user69839
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:34


















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It is simple to prove that the countable union of countable sets is countable:
Lay out each set in a line (if finite, just repeat over and over), and then go over the elements $e_{i j}$ diagonally: First 0, 0; then 0, 1 and 1, 0; then 2, 0 and 1, 1 and 0, 2; ... If an element has shown up already, skip it. This gives a biyection between $mathbb{N}$ and the union, unless the union is finite.






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    2 Answers
    2






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    2 Answers
    2






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    active

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    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    Yes, give a bijection between $Bbb N$ and $Bbb Zcup S$, that is a sequence in the latter which uses each element exactly once.



    Say, $SsetminusBbb Z={s_1,..,s_k}$. Then for example this sequence gives a bijection:
    $$(s_1,s_2,...,s_k,0,1,-1,2,-2,3,-3,4,-4,dots)$$
    That is, $1$ will be mapped to $s_1$, $k+1$ will be mapped to $0$, $k+2$ to $1$, and so on...






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you! I think I got it
      – user69839
      Apr 7 '13 at 23:34















    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    Yes, give a bijection between $Bbb N$ and $Bbb Zcup S$, that is a sequence in the latter which uses each element exactly once.



    Say, $SsetminusBbb Z={s_1,..,s_k}$. Then for example this sequence gives a bijection:
    $$(s_1,s_2,...,s_k,0,1,-1,2,-2,3,-3,4,-4,dots)$$
    That is, $1$ will be mapped to $s_1$, $k+1$ will be mapped to $0$, $k+2$ to $1$, and so on...






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you! I think I got it
      – user69839
      Apr 7 '13 at 23:34













    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted






    Yes, give a bijection between $Bbb N$ and $Bbb Zcup S$, that is a sequence in the latter which uses each element exactly once.



    Say, $SsetminusBbb Z={s_1,..,s_k}$. Then for example this sequence gives a bijection:
    $$(s_1,s_2,...,s_k,0,1,-1,2,-2,3,-3,4,-4,dots)$$
    That is, $1$ will be mapped to $s_1$, $k+1$ will be mapped to $0$, $k+2$ to $1$, and so on...






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Yes, give a bijection between $Bbb N$ and $Bbb Zcup S$, that is a sequence in the latter which uses each element exactly once.



    Say, $SsetminusBbb Z={s_1,..,s_k}$. Then for example this sequence gives a bijection:
    $$(s_1,s_2,...,s_k,0,1,-1,2,-2,3,-3,4,-4,dots)$$
    That is, $1$ will be mapped to $s_1$, $k+1$ will be mapped to $0$, $k+2$ to $1$, and so on...







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Apr 7 '13 at 23:31









    Berci

    59.4k23672




    59.4k23672












    • Thank you! I think I got it
      – user69839
      Apr 7 '13 at 23:34


















    • Thank you! I think I got it
      – user69839
      Apr 7 '13 at 23:34
















    Thank you! I think I got it
    – user69839
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:34




    Thank you! I think I got it
    – user69839
    Apr 7 '13 at 23:34










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    It is simple to prove that the countable union of countable sets is countable:
    Lay out each set in a line (if finite, just repeat over and over), and then go over the elements $e_{i j}$ diagonally: First 0, 0; then 0, 1 and 1, 0; then 2, 0 and 1, 1 and 0, 2; ... If an element has shown up already, skip it. This gives a biyection between $mathbb{N}$ and the union, unless the union is finite.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      It is simple to prove that the countable union of countable sets is countable:
      Lay out each set in a line (if finite, just repeat over and over), and then go over the elements $e_{i j}$ diagonally: First 0, 0; then 0, 1 and 1, 0; then 2, 0 and 1, 1 and 0, 2; ... If an element has shown up already, skip it. This gives a biyection between $mathbb{N}$ and the union, unless the union is finite.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        It is simple to prove that the countable union of countable sets is countable:
        Lay out each set in a line (if finite, just repeat over and over), and then go over the elements $e_{i j}$ diagonally: First 0, 0; then 0, 1 and 1, 0; then 2, 0 and 1, 1 and 0, 2; ... If an element has shown up already, skip it. This gives a biyection between $mathbb{N}$ and the union, unless the union is finite.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        It is simple to prove that the countable union of countable sets is countable:
        Lay out each set in a line (if finite, just repeat over and over), and then go over the elements $e_{i j}$ diagonally: First 0, 0; then 0, 1 and 1, 0; then 2, 0 and 1, 1 and 0, 2; ... If an element has shown up already, skip it. This gives a biyection between $mathbb{N}$ and the union, unless the union is finite.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 7 '13 at 23:44









        vonbrand

        19.8k63058




        19.8k63058






























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