Conditioning on random sets?











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Let $( X_i)_{i=1}^n$ be a random vector of (possibly dependent) real random variables.



Let $A_i$ be any measurable set such that $P(X_i in A_i ,|, X_{i-1} = x_{i-1},ldots,X_1 = x_1) = beta_i$. What I want to work out is the probability
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1).$$
The answer (I think) is just $P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i$, since
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = P(X_n in A_n|X_{n-1}in A_{n-1},ldots,X_1in A_1)ldots P(X_1in A_1),$$
but I am unsure how to make this formal? Is the following proof valid, where $p(x_n,ldots,x_1)$ is the pdf of $X_n,ldots,X_1$:
begin{align}
P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) &= int_{A_1}ldotsint_{A_n} p(x_n,ldots,x_1) mathrm{d}x_nldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=int_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1)int_{A_n} p(x_n,|,x_{n-1}ldots,x_1), mathrm{d}x_n,mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=beta_nint_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1),mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&= prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i.
end{align}



Maybe this is still not well formulated, since the $A_i$ are really any measurable set with constant probability for any $x_1,ldots,x_{i-1}$. Is the correct mathematical formulation that the $A_i$ are random sets? I am quite new to probability theory so am unsure...










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  • Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 0:53






  • 3




    What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
    – Michael
    Nov 28 at 1:09












  • Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
    – Timothy Hedgeworth
    Nov 28 at 14:46















up vote
1
down vote

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Let $( X_i)_{i=1}^n$ be a random vector of (possibly dependent) real random variables.



Let $A_i$ be any measurable set such that $P(X_i in A_i ,|, X_{i-1} = x_{i-1},ldots,X_1 = x_1) = beta_i$. What I want to work out is the probability
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1).$$
The answer (I think) is just $P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i$, since
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = P(X_n in A_n|X_{n-1}in A_{n-1},ldots,X_1in A_1)ldots P(X_1in A_1),$$
but I am unsure how to make this formal? Is the following proof valid, where $p(x_n,ldots,x_1)$ is the pdf of $X_n,ldots,X_1$:
begin{align}
P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) &= int_{A_1}ldotsint_{A_n} p(x_n,ldots,x_1) mathrm{d}x_nldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=int_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1)int_{A_n} p(x_n,|,x_{n-1}ldots,x_1), mathrm{d}x_n,mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=beta_nint_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1),mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&= prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i.
end{align}



Maybe this is still not well formulated, since the $A_i$ are really any measurable set with constant probability for any $x_1,ldots,x_{i-1}$. Is the correct mathematical formulation that the $A_i$ are random sets? I am quite new to probability theory so am unsure...










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 0:53






  • 3




    What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
    – Michael
    Nov 28 at 1:09












  • Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
    – Timothy Hedgeworth
    Nov 28 at 14:46













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1
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Let $( X_i)_{i=1}^n$ be a random vector of (possibly dependent) real random variables.



Let $A_i$ be any measurable set such that $P(X_i in A_i ,|, X_{i-1} = x_{i-1},ldots,X_1 = x_1) = beta_i$. What I want to work out is the probability
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1).$$
The answer (I think) is just $P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i$, since
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = P(X_n in A_n|X_{n-1}in A_{n-1},ldots,X_1in A_1)ldots P(X_1in A_1),$$
but I am unsure how to make this formal? Is the following proof valid, where $p(x_n,ldots,x_1)$ is the pdf of $X_n,ldots,X_1$:
begin{align}
P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) &= int_{A_1}ldotsint_{A_n} p(x_n,ldots,x_1) mathrm{d}x_nldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=int_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1)int_{A_n} p(x_n,|,x_{n-1}ldots,x_1), mathrm{d}x_n,mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=beta_nint_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1),mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&= prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i.
end{align}



Maybe this is still not well formulated, since the $A_i$ are really any measurable set with constant probability for any $x_1,ldots,x_{i-1}$. Is the correct mathematical formulation that the $A_i$ are random sets? I am quite new to probability theory so am unsure...










share|cite|improve this question















Let $( X_i)_{i=1}^n$ be a random vector of (possibly dependent) real random variables.



Let $A_i$ be any measurable set such that $P(X_i in A_i ,|, X_{i-1} = x_{i-1},ldots,X_1 = x_1) = beta_i$. What I want to work out is the probability
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1).$$
The answer (I think) is just $P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i$, since
$$P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) = P(X_n in A_n|X_{n-1}in A_{n-1},ldots,X_1in A_1)ldots P(X_1in A_1),$$
but I am unsure how to make this formal? Is the following proof valid, where $p(x_n,ldots,x_1)$ is the pdf of $X_n,ldots,X_1$:
begin{align}
P(X_n in A_n,ldots, X_1in A_1) &= int_{A_1}ldotsint_{A_n} p(x_n,ldots,x_1) mathrm{d}x_nldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=int_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1)int_{A_n} p(x_n,|,x_{n-1}ldots,x_1), mathrm{d}x_n,mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&=beta_nint_{A_1}p(x_1)ldotsint_{A_{n-1}}p(x_{n-1},|,x_{n-2}ldots,x_1),mathrm{d}x_{n-1}ldots mathrm{d}x_1 \
&= prod_{i=1}^nbeta_i.
end{align}



Maybe this is still not well formulated, since the $A_i$ are really any measurable set with constant probability for any $x_1,ldots,x_{i-1}$. Is the correct mathematical formulation that the $A_i$ are random sets? I am quite new to probability theory so am unsure...







probability probability-distributions conditional-probability






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 28 at 14:44

























asked Nov 28 at 0:50









Timothy Hedgeworth

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1366












  • Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 0:53






  • 3




    What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
    – Michael
    Nov 28 at 1:09












  • Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
    – Timothy Hedgeworth
    Nov 28 at 14:46


















  • Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 0:53






  • 3




    What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
    – Michael
    Nov 28 at 1:09












  • Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
    – Timothy Hedgeworth
    Nov 28 at 14:46
















Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 0:53




Intuitively, no. In fact, if you know all about $Y_1 = X_1,$ so you know $Y_2 = X_2 mid X_1.$
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 0:53




3




3




What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
– Michael
Nov 28 at 1:09






What does $Y_2 = X_2 | X_1$ mean? There is no such thing defined in probability theory. Do you mean $Y_2 = E[X_2|X_1]$?
– Michael
Nov 28 at 1:09














Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
– Timothy Hedgeworth
Nov 28 at 14:46




Thanks Michael for the comment. Yes, I now realise that this didn't make sense. I have tried to rewrite the question so it is closer to what I really wanted to know.
– Timothy Hedgeworth
Nov 28 at 14:46















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