$L^{infty}$ translation continuity











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Let $tau_h$ denote the the translation of $f$ by $h$, i.e $tau_h f(x) = f(x+h)$ . Let $f in L^infty$, then $f$ is not continuous under $h$, i.e $tau_h f$ does not converge to $f$ in the $infty$ norm as $h$ tends to $0$.



My proof: Consider the function given by $2xsin left(frac{1}{x}right) - cos (1/x)$ at $x neq 0$, and $0$ at $x = 0$, restricted to the interval $[-1,1]$. Then, we see that this function is bounded everywhere, but the translation operator is not continuous. Indeed, no matter how small we take $h$, we have at $x = 0$ that $|f_h - f|_infty = |f_h|_infty$ oscillates rapidly between $1$, $-1$, and thus we cannot have convergence under the supremum norm, as it will always bre greater than or equal to $2 -epsilon$ for some point.










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  • 1




    Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:12








  • 1




    Wow. I feel silly
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 at 1:14






  • 2




    My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:16















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $tau_h$ denote the the translation of $f$ by $h$, i.e $tau_h f(x) = f(x+h)$ . Let $f in L^infty$, then $f$ is not continuous under $h$, i.e $tau_h f$ does not converge to $f$ in the $infty$ norm as $h$ tends to $0$.



My proof: Consider the function given by $2xsin left(frac{1}{x}right) - cos (1/x)$ at $x neq 0$, and $0$ at $x = 0$, restricted to the interval $[-1,1]$. Then, we see that this function is bounded everywhere, but the translation operator is not continuous. Indeed, no matter how small we take $h$, we have at $x = 0$ that $|f_h - f|_infty = |f_h|_infty$ oscillates rapidly between $1$, $-1$, and thus we cannot have convergence under the supremum norm, as it will always bre greater than or equal to $2 -epsilon$ for some point.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:12








  • 1




    Wow. I feel silly
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 at 1:14






  • 2




    My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:16













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $tau_h$ denote the the translation of $f$ by $h$, i.e $tau_h f(x) = f(x+h)$ . Let $f in L^infty$, then $f$ is not continuous under $h$, i.e $tau_h f$ does not converge to $f$ in the $infty$ norm as $h$ tends to $0$.



My proof: Consider the function given by $2xsin left(frac{1}{x}right) - cos (1/x)$ at $x neq 0$, and $0$ at $x = 0$, restricted to the interval $[-1,1]$. Then, we see that this function is bounded everywhere, but the translation operator is not continuous. Indeed, no matter how small we take $h$, we have at $x = 0$ that $|f_h - f|_infty = |f_h|_infty$ oscillates rapidly between $1$, $-1$, and thus we cannot have convergence under the supremum norm, as it will always bre greater than or equal to $2 -epsilon$ for some point.










share|cite|improve this question













Let $tau_h$ denote the the translation of $f$ by $h$, i.e $tau_h f(x) = f(x+h)$ . Let $f in L^infty$, then $f$ is not continuous under $h$, i.e $tau_h f$ does not converge to $f$ in the $infty$ norm as $h$ tends to $0$.



My proof: Consider the function given by $2xsin left(frac{1}{x}right) - cos (1/x)$ at $x neq 0$, and $0$ at $x = 0$, restricted to the interval $[-1,1]$. Then, we see that this function is bounded everywhere, but the translation operator is not continuous. Indeed, no matter how small we take $h$, we have at $x = 0$ that $|f_h - f|_infty = |f_h|_infty$ oscillates rapidly between $1$, $-1$, and thus we cannot have convergence under the supremum norm, as it will always bre greater than or equal to $2 -epsilon$ for some point.







real-analysis functional-analysis lp-spaces






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asked Nov 28 at 1:09









rubikscube09

1,167717




1,167717








  • 1




    Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:12








  • 1




    Wow. I feel silly
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 at 1:14






  • 2




    My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:16














  • 1




    Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:12








  • 1




    Wow. I feel silly
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 at 1:14






  • 2




    My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
    – Will M.
    Nov 28 at 1:16








1




1




Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 1:12






Did you consider first $f = mathbf{1}_{[0, 1]}$ (the indicator function of the interval $[0, 1]$)? (I did not downvote the question.)
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 1:12






1




1




Wow. I feel silly
– rubikscube09
Nov 28 at 1:14




Wow. I feel silly
– rubikscube09
Nov 28 at 1:14




2




2




My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 1:16




My instructor, many years past now, used to make us feel silly by giving us counterexamples with the zero or identity matrix (we would always complicate the results too much).
– Will M.
Nov 28 at 1:16















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