lim sup and lim inf of sequence of sets.












67














I was wondering if someone would be so kind to provide a very simple explanation of lim sup and lim inf of s sequence of sets. For a sequence of subsets $A_n$ of a set $X$, the $limsup A_n= bigcap_{N=1}^infty left( bigcup_{nge N} A_n right)$ and $liminf A_n = bigcup_{N=1}^infty left(bigcap_{n ge N} A_nright)$. But O am having a hard time imagining what that really means unions of intersections and intersections of unions I think maybe causing the trouble. I read the version on Wikipedia but that didn't resolve this either.
Any help would be much appreciated.










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  • 5




    A proof of what?
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Feb 10 '12 at 21:51










  • These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 10 '12 at 22:00










  • Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
    – Comic Book Guy
    Feb 10 '12 at 23:32










  • $bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
    – user398843
    Mar 7 at 22:14


















67














I was wondering if someone would be so kind to provide a very simple explanation of lim sup and lim inf of s sequence of sets. For a sequence of subsets $A_n$ of a set $X$, the $limsup A_n= bigcap_{N=1}^infty left( bigcup_{nge N} A_n right)$ and $liminf A_n = bigcup_{N=1}^infty left(bigcap_{n ge N} A_nright)$. But O am having a hard time imagining what that really means unions of intersections and intersections of unions I think maybe causing the trouble. I read the version on Wikipedia but that didn't resolve this either.
Any help would be much appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 5




    A proof of what?
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Feb 10 '12 at 21:51










  • These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 10 '12 at 22:00










  • Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
    – Comic Book Guy
    Feb 10 '12 at 23:32










  • $bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
    – user398843
    Mar 7 at 22:14
















67












67








67


77





I was wondering if someone would be so kind to provide a very simple explanation of lim sup and lim inf of s sequence of sets. For a sequence of subsets $A_n$ of a set $X$, the $limsup A_n= bigcap_{N=1}^infty left( bigcup_{nge N} A_n right)$ and $liminf A_n = bigcup_{N=1}^infty left(bigcap_{n ge N} A_nright)$. But O am having a hard time imagining what that really means unions of intersections and intersections of unions I think maybe causing the trouble. I read the version on Wikipedia but that didn't resolve this either.
Any help would be much appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question















I was wondering if someone would be so kind to provide a very simple explanation of lim sup and lim inf of s sequence of sets. For a sequence of subsets $A_n$ of a set $X$, the $limsup A_n= bigcap_{N=1}^infty left( bigcup_{nge N} A_n right)$ and $liminf A_n = bigcup_{N=1}^infty left(bigcap_{n ge N} A_nright)$. But O am having a hard time imagining what that really means unions of intersections and intersections of unions I think maybe causing the trouble. I read the version on Wikipedia but that didn't resolve this either.
Any help would be much appreciated.







elementary-set-theory limsup-and-liminf






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edited Oct 21 '15 at 14:04









Martin Sleziak

44.6k7115270




44.6k7115270










asked Feb 10 '12 at 21:50









Comic Book Guy

2,34452859




2,34452859








  • 5




    A proof of what?
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Feb 10 '12 at 21:51










  • These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 10 '12 at 22:00










  • Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
    – Comic Book Guy
    Feb 10 '12 at 23:32










  • $bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
    – user398843
    Mar 7 at 22:14
















  • 5




    A proof of what?
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Feb 10 '12 at 21:51










  • These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
    – Henno Brandsma
    Feb 10 '12 at 22:00










  • Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
    – Comic Book Guy
    Feb 10 '12 at 23:32










  • $bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
    – user398843
    Mar 7 at 22:14










5




5




A proof of what?
– Qiaochu Yuan
Feb 10 '12 at 21:51




A proof of what?
– Qiaochu Yuan
Feb 10 '12 at 21:51












These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 10 '12 at 22:00




These are the definitions. Are you asking for help understanding them?
– Henno Brandsma
Feb 10 '12 at 22:00












Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
– Comic Book Guy
Feb 10 '12 at 23:32




Thanks it should have been an explanation, although the book tries to provide a proof, which i could n't follow. Hence the question.
– Comic Book Guy
Feb 10 '12 at 23:32












$bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
– user398843
Mar 7 at 22:14






$bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} (-frac{1}{n}, frac{1}{n})={0}$. What are some more interesting examples?
– user398843
Mar 7 at 22:14












6 Answers
6






active

oldest

votes


















109














A member of
$$
bigcup_{N=1}^infty bigcap_{nge N} A_n
$$
is a member of at least one of the sets
$$
bigcap_{nge N} A_n,
$$
meaning it's a member of either $A_1cap A_2 cap A_3 cap cdots$ or $A_2cap A_3 cap A_4 cap cdots$ or $A_3cap A_4 cap A_5 cap cdots$ or $A_4cap A_5 cap A_6 cap cdots$ or $ldots$ etc. That means it's a member of all except finitely many of the $A$.



A member of
$$
bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} A_n
$$
is a member of all of the sets
$$
bigcup_{nge N} A_n,
$$
so it's a member of $A_1cup A_2 cup A_3 cup cdots$ and of $A_2cup A_3 cup A_4 cup cdots$ and of $A_3cup A_4 cup A_5 cup cdots$ and of $A_4cup A_5 cup A_6 cup cdots$ and of $ldots$ etc. That means no matter how far down the sequence you go, it's a member of at least one of the sets that come later. That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
    – Comic Book Guy
    Feb 10 '12 at 23:39










  • fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
    – Michael Hardy
    Feb 11 '12 at 0:51










  • thanks for this wonderful explanation!
    – under root
    Mar 27 '14 at 19:09










  • great answer! Thank you!
    – Ant
    Jul 24 '14 at 8:58






  • 9




    what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
    – Diego
    Jan 8 '16 at 0:10





















54














I just came up with this mnemonic story:



There is a company with employes and one day a whole bunch $mathcal A$ of them get fired. They become beggars and have to live on the street. One day, the local church decides to start to give out free food for them every week. In the $n$th week, $A_n$ are the people who show up (this is a sequence of $mathcal A$-people: $forall n (A_nsubseteq mathcal A)$. Yes, beggars never die).




  1. Some of the people eventually get a new job and never show up at the church again.


  2. Others are too proud and try not to be seen around all the time, but they need to eat so they always come back eventually.


  3. Lastly there are the people who have low self-esteem; they feel inferior, and at one point, they don't care anymore and start to get their food from the church each week.



$lim sup A_n$ are all the people who don't get another job. (Categories 2 and 3). Thus, $lim inf A_n^C$ are all the people who eventually get a new job. (Category 1)



$lim inf A_n$ are the people who become weekly regulars. (Category 3)



Clearly $lim inf A_n subseteq lim sup A_n$.



A series converges implies all the people who can't get another job eventually swallow their pride and become regulars too: $lim inf A_n$ = $lim sup A_n$. We call this the limit of $A_n$.






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  • 10




    Publish this!!!!!!
    – Jack Bauer
    Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






  • 1




    You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
    – user268307
    Dec 15 '15 at 10:46










  • @Member Edited.
    – BCLC
    Apr 23 at 15:29










  • @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
    – thomson
    Jun 23 at 17:26



















17














(This is a late answer, but hopefully it may add another perspective to the discussion.)



When one thinks about the problem of defining the limit of a sequence of sets,
there are two easy cases: if the sequence is increasing, or if it's decreasing.



For example, when defining improper integrals $iint_D$ in multivariable calculus, one looks at sequences $D_1 subseteq D_2 subseteq D_3 subseteq dotsb$ which exhaust $D$, meaning that




  • each $D_i$ is a subset of $D$, and

  • each element of $D$ is contained in $D_n$ for all sufficiently large $n$ (in other words, $D=bigcup_{n=1}^infty D_n$).


In this situation, students often ask if they can write $D_n to D$, and the answer is usually “well, we haven't really defined limits of sets in this course, but if we had...”. So it's pretty intuitive that for an increasing sequence of sets, the limit should be defined as the union of all sets in the sequence.



Similarly, for a decreasing sequence $E_1 supseteq E_2 supseteq E_3 supseteq dotsb$, it's natural to define the limit as the intersection
: $E_n to E$ as $ntoinfty$, where $E=bigcap_{n=1}^infty E_n$.



Now, for an arbitrary sequence of sets $(A_1,A_2,A_3,dots)$, we can squeeze it between an increasing sequence $(D_n)$ and a decreasing sequence $(E_n)$, like this:
$$
begin{array}{lcl}
D_1 = A_1 cap A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
&quadsubseteqqquad
A_1
qquad
&subseteq qquad
E_1 = A_1 cup A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
\
D_2 = phantom{A_1 cap{}} A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
&quadsubseteqqquad
A_2
qquad
&subseteq qquad
E_2 = phantom{A_1 cup{}} A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
\
D_3 = phantom{A_1 cap A_2 cap{}} A_3 cap dotsb
&quadsubseteqqquad
A_3
qquad
&subseteq qquad
E_3 = phantom{A_1 cup A_2 cup{}} A_3 cup dotsb
\
& qquadvdots &
end{array}
$$
Moreover, $(D_n)$ is the largest increasing sequence such that $D_n subseteq A_n$ for all $n$,
and $(E_n)$ is the smallest decreasing sequence such that $A_n subseteq E_n$ for all $n$,
so it makes sense to define
$$
liminf_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} D_n
,qquad
limsup_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} E_n
.
$$
And if these lower and upper limits are equal, then we say that that's $limlimits_{ntoinfty} A_n$.



(What Willie Wong's answer says it that the same construction makes sense in any partially ordered set where you can take the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of infinitely many elements, if you replace $(subseteq,cap,cup)$ by $(le,wedge,vee)$.)






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    15














    In terms of sets, we have the following interpretations:




    • $displaystyle xinbigcup_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in at least one of the $A_i$ sets.

    • $displaystyle xinbigcap_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in all of the $A_i$ sets.


    So this means that




    1. $bigcap_{Nge1}bigcup_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements somewhere in $A_N,A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$, no matter how large N is. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in infinitely many of the $A_i$ sets".

    2. $bigcup_{Nge1}bigcap_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements in every single one of $A_{N},A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$ for some $N$. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in all but finitely many the $A_i$ sets".






    share|cite|improve this answer































      14














      Are you familiar with the real analysis definition of
      $$limsup_{ntoinfty} x_n = inf_{mgeq 0} sup_{ngeq m} x_n~?$$



      The same definition can be applied to any sequence of elements in a complete lattice. Now apply it to the power set $2^X$ of some base set $X$ with set inclusion as the partial order.






      share|cite|improve this answer

















      • 3




        Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
        – Jack Bauer
        Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






      • 1




        @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
        – Willie Wong
        Aug 13 '15 at 15:33






      • 1




        @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
        – goblin
        Feb 28 '16 at 10:06






      • 1




        @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
        – Willie Wong
        Aug 15 '17 at 13:47






      • 1




        @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
        – Willie Wong
        Aug 15 '17 at 13:56



















      0














      Another way to think about it is via indicator functions: let $f_n$ be the indicator function of the set $X_n$ (i.e. $f_n(x)=1$ if $xin X_n$ and 0 otherwise). Then it is not difficult to check that $lim sup f_n$ is the indicator function of $lim sup X_n$ and similarly for limit inferior.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        6 Answers
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        6 Answers
        6






        active

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        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

        votes









        109














        A member of
        $$
        bigcup_{N=1}^infty bigcap_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of at least one of the sets
        $$
        bigcap_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        meaning it's a member of either $A_1cap A_2 cap A_3 cap cdots$ or $A_2cap A_3 cap A_4 cap cdots$ or $A_3cap A_4 cap A_5 cap cdots$ or $A_4cap A_5 cap A_6 cap cdots$ or $ldots$ etc. That means it's a member of all except finitely many of the $A$.



        A member of
        $$
        bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of all of the sets
        $$
        bigcup_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        so it's a member of $A_1cup A_2 cup A_3 cup cdots$ and of $A_2cup A_3 cup A_4 cup cdots$ and of $A_3cup A_4 cup A_5 cup cdots$ and of $A_4cup A_5 cup A_6 cup cdots$ and of $ldots$ etc. That means no matter how far down the sequence you go, it's a member of at least one of the sets that come later. That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
          – Comic Book Guy
          Feb 10 '12 at 23:39










        • fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
          – Michael Hardy
          Feb 11 '12 at 0:51










        • thanks for this wonderful explanation!
          – under root
          Mar 27 '14 at 19:09










        • great answer! Thank you!
          – Ant
          Jul 24 '14 at 8:58






        • 9




          what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
          – Diego
          Jan 8 '16 at 0:10


















        109














        A member of
        $$
        bigcup_{N=1}^infty bigcap_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of at least one of the sets
        $$
        bigcap_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        meaning it's a member of either $A_1cap A_2 cap A_3 cap cdots$ or $A_2cap A_3 cap A_4 cap cdots$ or $A_3cap A_4 cap A_5 cap cdots$ or $A_4cap A_5 cap A_6 cap cdots$ or $ldots$ etc. That means it's a member of all except finitely many of the $A$.



        A member of
        $$
        bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of all of the sets
        $$
        bigcup_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        so it's a member of $A_1cup A_2 cup A_3 cup cdots$ and of $A_2cup A_3 cup A_4 cup cdots$ and of $A_3cup A_4 cup A_5 cup cdots$ and of $A_4cup A_5 cup A_6 cup cdots$ and of $ldots$ etc. That means no matter how far down the sequence you go, it's a member of at least one of the sets that come later. That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
          – Comic Book Guy
          Feb 10 '12 at 23:39










        • fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
          – Michael Hardy
          Feb 11 '12 at 0:51










        • thanks for this wonderful explanation!
          – under root
          Mar 27 '14 at 19:09










        • great answer! Thank you!
          – Ant
          Jul 24 '14 at 8:58






        • 9




          what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
          – Diego
          Jan 8 '16 at 0:10
















        109












        109








        109






        A member of
        $$
        bigcup_{N=1}^infty bigcap_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of at least one of the sets
        $$
        bigcap_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        meaning it's a member of either $A_1cap A_2 cap A_3 cap cdots$ or $A_2cap A_3 cap A_4 cap cdots$ or $A_3cap A_4 cap A_5 cap cdots$ or $A_4cap A_5 cap A_6 cap cdots$ or $ldots$ etc. That means it's a member of all except finitely many of the $A$.



        A member of
        $$
        bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of all of the sets
        $$
        bigcup_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        so it's a member of $A_1cup A_2 cup A_3 cup cdots$ and of $A_2cup A_3 cup A_4 cup cdots$ and of $A_3cup A_4 cup A_5 cup cdots$ and of $A_4cup A_5 cup A_6 cup cdots$ and of $ldots$ etc. That means no matter how far down the sequence you go, it's a member of at least one of the sets that come later. That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        A member of
        $$
        bigcup_{N=1}^infty bigcap_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of at least one of the sets
        $$
        bigcap_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        meaning it's a member of either $A_1cap A_2 cap A_3 cap cdots$ or $A_2cap A_3 cap A_4 cap cdots$ or $A_3cap A_4 cap A_5 cap cdots$ or $A_4cap A_5 cap A_6 cap cdots$ or $ldots$ etc. That means it's a member of all except finitely many of the $A$.



        A member of
        $$
        bigcap_{N=1}^infty bigcup_{nge N} A_n
        $$
        is a member of all of the sets
        $$
        bigcup_{nge N} A_n,
        $$
        so it's a member of $A_1cup A_2 cup A_3 cup cdots$ and of $A_2cup A_3 cup A_4 cup cdots$ and of $A_3cup A_4 cup A_5 cup cdots$ and of $A_4cup A_5 cup A_6 cup cdots$ and of $ldots$ etc. That means no matter how far down the sequence you go, it's a member of at least one of the sets that come later. That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Feb 11 '12 at 0:49

























        answered Feb 10 '12 at 22:25









        Michael Hardy

        1




        1












        • I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
          – Comic Book Guy
          Feb 10 '12 at 23:39










        • fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
          – Michael Hardy
          Feb 11 '12 at 0:51










        • thanks for this wonderful explanation!
          – under root
          Mar 27 '14 at 19:09










        • great answer! Thank you!
          – Ant
          Jul 24 '14 at 8:58






        • 9




          what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
          – Diego
          Jan 8 '16 at 0:10




















        • I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
          – Comic Book Guy
          Feb 10 '12 at 23:39










        • fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
          – Michael Hardy
          Feb 11 '12 at 0:51










        • thanks for this wonderful explanation!
          – under root
          Mar 27 '14 at 19:09










        • great answer! Thank you!
          – Ant
          Jul 24 '14 at 8:58






        • 9




          what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
          – Diego
          Jan 8 '16 at 0:10


















        I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
        – Comic Book Guy
        Feb 10 '12 at 23:39




        I think in the of sup explanation the should be U signs between the subsets, but the rest of the answer was well explained.
        – Comic Book Guy
        Feb 10 '12 at 23:39












        fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
        – Michael Hardy
        Feb 11 '12 at 0:51




        fixed ${{{{{}}}}}$
        – Michael Hardy
        Feb 11 '12 at 0:51












        thanks for this wonderful explanation!
        – under root
        Mar 27 '14 at 19:09




        thanks for this wonderful explanation!
        – under root
        Mar 27 '14 at 19:09












        great answer! Thank you!
        – Ant
        Jul 24 '14 at 8:58




        great answer! Thank you!
        – Ant
        Jul 24 '14 at 8:58




        9




        9




        what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
        – Diego
        Jan 8 '16 at 0:10






        what really clarified things for me was the "That means it's a member of infinitely many of them, but there might also be infinitely many that it does not belong to." Thanks!
        – Diego
        Jan 8 '16 at 0:10













        54














        I just came up with this mnemonic story:



        There is a company with employes and one day a whole bunch $mathcal A$ of them get fired. They become beggars and have to live on the street. One day, the local church decides to start to give out free food for them every week. In the $n$th week, $A_n$ are the people who show up (this is a sequence of $mathcal A$-people: $forall n (A_nsubseteq mathcal A)$. Yes, beggars never die).




        1. Some of the people eventually get a new job and never show up at the church again.


        2. Others are too proud and try not to be seen around all the time, but they need to eat so they always come back eventually.


        3. Lastly there are the people who have low self-esteem; they feel inferior, and at one point, they don't care anymore and start to get their food from the church each week.



        $lim sup A_n$ are all the people who don't get another job. (Categories 2 and 3). Thus, $lim inf A_n^C$ are all the people who eventually get a new job. (Category 1)



        $lim inf A_n$ are the people who become weekly regulars. (Category 3)



        Clearly $lim inf A_n subseteq lim sup A_n$.



        A series converges implies all the people who can't get another job eventually swallow their pride and become regulars too: $lim inf A_n$ = $lim sup A_n$. We call this the limit of $A_n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 10




          Publish this!!!!!!
          – Jack Bauer
          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






        • 1




          You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
          – user268307
          Dec 15 '15 at 10:46










        • @Member Edited.
          – BCLC
          Apr 23 at 15:29










        • @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
          – thomson
          Jun 23 at 17:26
















        54














        I just came up with this mnemonic story:



        There is a company with employes and one day a whole bunch $mathcal A$ of them get fired. They become beggars and have to live on the street. One day, the local church decides to start to give out free food for them every week. In the $n$th week, $A_n$ are the people who show up (this is a sequence of $mathcal A$-people: $forall n (A_nsubseteq mathcal A)$. Yes, beggars never die).




        1. Some of the people eventually get a new job and never show up at the church again.


        2. Others are too proud and try not to be seen around all the time, but they need to eat so they always come back eventually.


        3. Lastly there are the people who have low self-esteem; they feel inferior, and at one point, they don't care anymore and start to get their food from the church each week.



        $lim sup A_n$ are all the people who don't get another job. (Categories 2 and 3). Thus, $lim inf A_n^C$ are all the people who eventually get a new job. (Category 1)



        $lim inf A_n$ are the people who become weekly regulars. (Category 3)



        Clearly $lim inf A_n subseteq lim sup A_n$.



        A series converges implies all the people who can't get another job eventually swallow their pride and become regulars too: $lim inf A_n$ = $lim sup A_n$. We call this the limit of $A_n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 10




          Publish this!!!!!!
          – Jack Bauer
          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






        • 1




          You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
          – user268307
          Dec 15 '15 at 10:46










        • @Member Edited.
          – BCLC
          Apr 23 at 15:29










        • @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
          – thomson
          Jun 23 at 17:26














        54












        54








        54






        I just came up with this mnemonic story:



        There is a company with employes and one day a whole bunch $mathcal A$ of them get fired. They become beggars and have to live on the street. One day, the local church decides to start to give out free food for them every week. In the $n$th week, $A_n$ are the people who show up (this is a sequence of $mathcal A$-people: $forall n (A_nsubseteq mathcal A)$. Yes, beggars never die).




        1. Some of the people eventually get a new job and never show up at the church again.


        2. Others are too proud and try not to be seen around all the time, but they need to eat so they always come back eventually.


        3. Lastly there are the people who have low self-esteem; they feel inferior, and at one point, they don't care anymore and start to get their food from the church each week.



        $lim sup A_n$ are all the people who don't get another job. (Categories 2 and 3). Thus, $lim inf A_n^C$ are all the people who eventually get a new job. (Category 1)



        $lim inf A_n$ are the people who become weekly regulars. (Category 3)



        Clearly $lim inf A_n subseteq lim sup A_n$.



        A series converges implies all the people who can't get another job eventually swallow their pride and become regulars too: $lim inf A_n$ = $lim sup A_n$. We call this the limit of $A_n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        I just came up with this mnemonic story:



        There is a company with employes and one day a whole bunch $mathcal A$ of them get fired. They become beggars and have to live on the street. One day, the local church decides to start to give out free food for them every week. In the $n$th week, $A_n$ are the people who show up (this is a sequence of $mathcal A$-people: $forall n (A_nsubseteq mathcal A)$. Yes, beggars never die).




        1. Some of the people eventually get a new job and never show up at the church again.


        2. Others are too proud and try not to be seen around all the time, but they need to eat so they always come back eventually.


        3. Lastly there are the people who have low self-esteem; they feel inferior, and at one point, they don't care anymore and start to get their food from the church each week.



        $lim sup A_n$ are all the people who don't get another job. (Categories 2 and 3). Thus, $lim inf A_n^C$ are all the people who eventually get a new job. (Category 1)



        $lim inf A_n$ are the people who become weekly regulars. (Category 3)



        Clearly $lim inf A_n subseteq lim sup A_n$.



        A series converges implies all the people who can't get another job eventually swallow their pride and become regulars too: $lim inf A_n$ = $lim sup A_n$. We call this the limit of $A_n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Apr 23 at 15:28









        BCLC

        1




        1










        answered Jun 5 '13 at 20:55









        Nikolaj-K

        5,76223068




        5,76223068








        • 10




          Publish this!!!!!!
          – Jack Bauer
          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






        • 1




          You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
          – user268307
          Dec 15 '15 at 10:46










        • @Member Edited.
          – BCLC
          Apr 23 at 15:29










        • @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
          – thomson
          Jun 23 at 17:26














        • 10




          Publish this!!!!!!
          – Jack Bauer
          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






        • 1




          You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
          – user268307
          Dec 15 '15 at 10:46










        • @Member Edited.
          – BCLC
          Apr 23 at 15:29










        • @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
          – thomson
          Jun 23 at 17:26








        10




        10




        Publish this!!!!!!
        – Jack Bauer
        Jul 30 '15 at 16:53




        Publish this!!!!!!
        – Jack Bauer
        Jul 30 '15 at 16:53




        1




        1




        You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
        – user268307
        Dec 15 '15 at 10:46




        You mean to say lim sup consist of people of second and third category as you described and lim inf consist of third category of people. Right ?
        – user268307
        Dec 15 '15 at 10:46












        @Member Edited.
        – BCLC
        Apr 23 at 15:29




        @Member Edited.
        – BCLC
        Apr 23 at 15:29












        @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
        – thomson
        Jun 23 at 17:26




        @Nikolaj-K nice answer. but I have a problem. we know that if $x in lim inf A_n$ then $x$ belongs to all but finitely many $A_i$s. how this can be explained by your example.
        – thomson
        Jun 23 at 17:26











        17














        (This is a late answer, but hopefully it may add another perspective to the discussion.)



        When one thinks about the problem of defining the limit of a sequence of sets,
        there are two easy cases: if the sequence is increasing, or if it's decreasing.



        For example, when defining improper integrals $iint_D$ in multivariable calculus, one looks at sequences $D_1 subseteq D_2 subseteq D_3 subseteq dotsb$ which exhaust $D$, meaning that




        • each $D_i$ is a subset of $D$, and

        • each element of $D$ is contained in $D_n$ for all sufficiently large $n$ (in other words, $D=bigcup_{n=1}^infty D_n$).


        In this situation, students often ask if they can write $D_n to D$, and the answer is usually “well, we haven't really defined limits of sets in this course, but if we had...”. So it's pretty intuitive that for an increasing sequence of sets, the limit should be defined as the union of all sets in the sequence.



        Similarly, for a decreasing sequence $E_1 supseteq E_2 supseteq E_3 supseteq dotsb$, it's natural to define the limit as the intersection
        : $E_n to E$ as $ntoinfty$, where $E=bigcap_{n=1}^infty E_n$.



        Now, for an arbitrary sequence of sets $(A_1,A_2,A_3,dots)$, we can squeeze it between an increasing sequence $(D_n)$ and a decreasing sequence $(E_n)$, like this:
        $$
        begin{array}{lcl}
        D_1 = A_1 cap A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
        &quadsubseteqqquad
        A_1
        qquad
        &subseteq qquad
        E_1 = A_1 cup A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
        \
        D_2 = phantom{A_1 cap{}} A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
        &quadsubseteqqquad
        A_2
        qquad
        &subseteq qquad
        E_2 = phantom{A_1 cup{}} A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
        \
        D_3 = phantom{A_1 cap A_2 cap{}} A_3 cap dotsb
        &quadsubseteqqquad
        A_3
        qquad
        &subseteq qquad
        E_3 = phantom{A_1 cup A_2 cup{}} A_3 cup dotsb
        \
        & qquadvdots &
        end{array}
        $$
        Moreover, $(D_n)$ is the largest increasing sequence such that $D_n subseteq A_n$ for all $n$,
        and $(E_n)$ is the smallest decreasing sequence such that $A_n subseteq E_n$ for all $n$,
        so it makes sense to define
        $$
        liminf_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} D_n
        ,qquad
        limsup_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} E_n
        .
        $$
        And if these lower and upper limits are equal, then we say that that's $limlimits_{ntoinfty} A_n$.



        (What Willie Wong's answer says it that the same construction makes sense in any partially ordered set where you can take the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of infinitely many elements, if you replace $(subseteq,cap,cup)$ by $(le,wedge,vee)$.)






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          17














          (This is a late answer, but hopefully it may add another perspective to the discussion.)



          When one thinks about the problem of defining the limit of a sequence of sets,
          there are two easy cases: if the sequence is increasing, or if it's decreasing.



          For example, when defining improper integrals $iint_D$ in multivariable calculus, one looks at sequences $D_1 subseteq D_2 subseteq D_3 subseteq dotsb$ which exhaust $D$, meaning that




          • each $D_i$ is a subset of $D$, and

          • each element of $D$ is contained in $D_n$ for all sufficiently large $n$ (in other words, $D=bigcup_{n=1}^infty D_n$).


          In this situation, students often ask if they can write $D_n to D$, and the answer is usually “well, we haven't really defined limits of sets in this course, but if we had...”. So it's pretty intuitive that for an increasing sequence of sets, the limit should be defined as the union of all sets in the sequence.



          Similarly, for a decreasing sequence $E_1 supseteq E_2 supseteq E_3 supseteq dotsb$, it's natural to define the limit as the intersection
          : $E_n to E$ as $ntoinfty$, where $E=bigcap_{n=1}^infty E_n$.



          Now, for an arbitrary sequence of sets $(A_1,A_2,A_3,dots)$, we can squeeze it between an increasing sequence $(D_n)$ and a decreasing sequence $(E_n)$, like this:
          $$
          begin{array}{lcl}
          D_1 = A_1 cap A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
          &quadsubseteqqquad
          A_1
          qquad
          &subseteq qquad
          E_1 = A_1 cup A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
          \
          D_2 = phantom{A_1 cap{}} A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
          &quadsubseteqqquad
          A_2
          qquad
          &subseteq qquad
          E_2 = phantom{A_1 cup{}} A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
          \
          D_3 = phantom{A_1 cap A_2 cap{}} A_3 cap dotsb
          &quadsubseteqqquad
          A_3
          qquad
          &subseteq qquad
          E_3 = phantom{A_1 cup A_2 cup{}} A_3 cup dotsb
          \
          & qquadvdots &
          end{array}
          $$
          Moreover, $(D_n)$ is the largest increasing sequence such that $D_n subseteq A_n$ for all $n$,
          and $(E_n)$ is the smallest decreasing sequence such that $A_n subseteq E_n$ for all $n$,
          so it makes sense to define
          $$
          liminf_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} D_n
          ,qquad
          limsup_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} E_n
          .
          $$
          And if these lower and upper limits are equal, then we say that that's $limlimits_{ntoinfty} A_n$.



          (What Willie Wong's answer says it that the same construction makes sense in any partially ordered set where you can take the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of infinitely many elements, if you replace $(subseteq,cap,cup)$ by $(le,wedge,vee)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer


























            17












            17








            17






            (This is a late answer, but hopefully it may add another perspective to the discussion.)



            When one thinks about the problem of defining the limit of a sequence of sets,
            there are two easy cases: if the sequence is increasing, or if it's decreasing.



            For example, when defining improper integrals $iint_D$ in multivariable calculus, one looks at sequences $D_1 subseteq D_2 subseteq D_3 subseteq dotsb$ which exhaust $D$, meaning that




            • each $D_i$ is a subset of $D$, and

            • each element of $D$ is contained in $D_n$ for all sufficiently large $n$ (in other words, $D=bigcup_{n=1}^infty D_n$).


            In this situation, students often ask if they can write $D_n to D$, and the answer is usually “well, we haven't really defined limits of sets in this course, but if we had...”. So it's pretty intuitive that for an increasing sequence of sets, the limit should be defined as the union of all sets in the sequence.



            Similarly, for a decreasing sequence $E_1 supseteq E_2 supseteq E_3 supseteq dotsb$, it's natural to define the limit as the intersection
            : $E_n to E$ as $ntoinfty$, where $E=bigcap_{n=1}^infty E_n$.



            Now, for an arbitrary sequence of sets $(A_1,A_2,A_3,dots)$, we can squeeze it between an increasing sequence $(D_n)$ and a decreasing sequence $(E_n)$, like this:
            $$
            begin{array}{lcl}
            D_1 = A_1 cap A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_1
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_1 = A_1 cup A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            D_2 = phantom{A_1 cap{}} A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_2
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_2 = phantom{A_1 cup{}} A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            D_3 = phantom{A_1 cap A_2 cap{}} A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_3
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_3 = phantom{A_1 cup A_2 cup{}} A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            & qquadvdots &
            end{array}
            $$
            Moreover, $(D_n)$ is the largest increasing sequence such that $D_n subseteq A_n$ for all $n$,
            and $(E_n)$ is the smallest decreasing sequence such that $A_n subseteq E_n$ for all $n$,
            so it makes sense to define
            $$
            liminf_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} D_n
            ,qquad
            limsup_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} E_n
            .
            $$
            And if these lower and upper limits are equal, then we say that that's $limlimits_{ntoinfty} A_n$.



            (What Willie Wong's answer says it that the same construction makes sense in any partially ordered set where you can take the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of infinitely many elements, if you replace $(subseteq,cap,cup)$ by $(le,wedge,vee)$.)






            share|cite|improve this answer














            (This is a late answer, but hopefully it may add another perspective to the discussion.)



            When one thinks about the problem of defining the limit of a sequence of sets,
            there are two easy cases: if the sequence is increasing, or if it's decreasing.



            For example, when defining improper integrals $iint_D$ in multivariable calculus, one looks at sequences $D_1 subseteq D_2 subseteq D_3 subseteq dotsb$ which exhaust $D$, meaning that




            • each $D_i$ is a subset of $D$, and

            • each element of $D$ is contained in $D_n$ for all sufficiently large $n$ (in other words, $D=bigcup_{n=1}^infty D_n$).


            In this situation, students often ask if they can write $D_n to D$, and the answer is usually “well, we haven't really defined limits of sets in this course, but if we had...”. So it's pretty intuitive that for an increasing sequence of sets, the limit should be defined as the union of all sets in the sequence.



            Similarly, for a decreasing sequence $E_1 supseteq E_2 supseteq E_3 supseteq dotsb$, it's natural to define the limit as the intersection
            : $E_n to E$ as $ntoinfty$, where $E=bigcap_{n=1}^infty E_n$.



            Now, for an arbitrary sequence of sets $(A_1,A_2,A_3,dots)$, we can squeeze it between an increasing sequence $(D_n)$ and a decreasing sequence $(E_n)$, like this:
            $$
            begin{array}{lcl}
            D_1 = A_1 cap A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_1
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_1 = A_1 cup A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            D_2 = phantom{A_1 cap{}} A_2 cap A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_2
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_2 = phantom{A_1 cup{}} A_2 cup A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            D_3 = phantom{A_1 cap A_2 cap{}} A_3 cap dotsb
            &quadsubseteqqquad
            A_3
            qquad
            &subseteq qquad
            E_3 = phantom{A_1 cup A_2 cup{}} A_3 cup dotsb
            \
            & qquadvdots &
            end{array}
            $$
            Moreover, $(D_n)$ is the largest increasing sequence such that $D_n subseteq A_n$ for all $n$,
            and $(E_n)$ is the smallest decreasing sequence such that $A_n subseteq E_n$ for all $n$,
            so it makes sense to define
            $$
            liminf_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} D_n
            ,qquad
            limsup_{ntoinfty} A_n = lim_{ntoinfty} E_n
            .
            $$
            And if these lower and upper limits are equal, then we say that that's $limlimits_{ntoinfty} A_n$.



            (What Willie Wong's answer says it that the same construction makes sense in any partially ordered set where you can take the least upper bound and greatest lower bound of infinitely many elements, if you replace $(subseteq,cap,cup)$ by $(le,wedge,vee)$.)







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Sep 2 '16 at 17:34

























            answered Sep 2 '16 at 13:11









            Hans Lundmark

            35k564112




            35k564112























                15














                In terms of sets, we have the following interpretations:




                • $displaystyle xinbigcup_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in at least one of the $A_i$ sets.

                • $displaystyle xinbigcap_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in all of the $A_i$ sets.


                So this means that




                1. $bigcap_{Nge1}bigcup_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements somewhere in $A_N,A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$, no matter how large N is. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in infinitely many of the $A_i$ sets".

                2. $bigcup_{Nge1}bigcap_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements in every single one of $A_{N},A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$ for some $N$. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in all but finitely many the $A_i$ sets".






                share|cite|improve this answer




























                  15














                  In terms of sets, we have the following interpretations:




                  • $displaystyle xinbigcup_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in at least one of the $A_i$ sets.

                  • $displaystyle xinbigcap_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in all of the $A_i$ sets.


                  So this means that




                  1. $bigcap_{Nge1}bigcup_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements somewhere in $A_N,A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$, no matter how large N is. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in infinitely many of the $A_i$ sets".

                  2. $bigcup_{Nge1}bigcap_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements in every single one of $A_{N},A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$ for some $N$. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in all but finitely many the $A_i$ sets".






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    15












                    15








                    15






                    In terms of sets, we have the following interpretations:




                    • $displaystyle xinbigcup_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in at least one of the $A_i$ sets.

                    • $displaystyle xinbigcap_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in all of the $A_i$ sets.


                    So this means that




                    1. $bigcap_{Nge1}bigcup_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements somewhere in $A_N,A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$, no matter how large N is. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in infinitely many of the $A_i$ sets".

                    2. $bigcup_{Nge1}bigcap_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements in every single one of $A_{N},A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$ for some $N$. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in all but finitely many the $A_i$ sets".






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    In terms of sets, we have the following interpretations:




                    • $displaystyle xinbigcup_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in at least one of the $A_i$ sets.

                    • $displaystyle xinbigcap_{iin I} A_i$ means that $x$ is in all of the $A_i$ sets.


                    So this means that




                    1. $bigcap_{Nge1}bigcup_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements somewhere in $A_N,A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$, no matter how large N is. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in infinitely many of the $A_i$ sets".

                    2. $bigcup_{Nge1}bigcap_{nge N} A_n$ are all elements in every single one of $A_{N},A_{N+1},A_{N+2},dots$ for some $N$. Being a member of this set is logically equivalent to being "in all but finitely many the $A_i$ sets".







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Jan 27 at 20:17









                    Hashimoto

                    14019




                    14019










                    answered Feb 10 '12 at 22:23









                    anon

                    71.8k5108211




                    71.8k5108211























                        14














                        Are you familiar with the real analysis definition of
                        $$limsup_{ntoinfty} x_n = inf_{mgeq 0} sup_{ngeq m} x_n~?$$



                        The same definition can be applied to any sequence of elements in a complete lattice. Now apply it to the power set $2^X$ of some base set $X$ with set inclusion as the partial order.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 3




                          Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                          – Jack Bauer
                          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 13 '15 at 15:33






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                          – goblin
                          Feb 28 '16 at 10:06






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:47






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:56
















                        14














                        Are you familiar with the real analysis definition of
                        $$limsup_{ntoinfty} x_n = inf_{mgeq 0} sup_{ngeq m} x_n~?$$



                        The same definition can be applied to any sequence of elements in a complete lattice. Now apply it to the power set $2^X$ of some base set $X$ with set inclusion as the partial order.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 3




                          Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                          – Jack Bauer
                          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 13 '15 at 15:33






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                          – goblin
                          Feb 28 '16 at 10:06






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:47






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:56














                        14












                        14








                        14






                        Are you familiar with the real analysis definition of
                        $$limsup_{ntoinfty} x_n = inf_{mgeq 0} sup_{ngeq m} x_n~?$$



                        The same definition can be applied to any sequence of elements in a complete lattice. Now apply it to the power set $2^X$ of some base set $X$ with set inclusion as the partial order.






                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        Are you familiar with the real analysis definition of
                        $$limsup_{ntoinfty} x_n = inf_{mgeq 0} sup_{ngeq m} x_n~?$$



                        The same definition can be applied to any sequence of elements in a complete lattice. Now apply it to the power set $2^X$ of some base set $X$ with set inclusion as the partial order.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Feb 10 '12 at 23:23









                        Willie Wong

                        55.2k10108209




                        55.2k10108209








                        • 3




                          Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                          – Jack Bauer
                          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 13 '15 at 15:33






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                          – goblin
                          Feb 28 '16 at 10:06






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:47






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:56














                        • 3




                          Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                          – Jack Bauer
                          Jul 30 '15 at 16:53






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 13 '15 at 15:33






                        • 1




                          @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                          – goblin
                          Feb 28 '16 at 10:06






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:47






                        • 1




                          @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                          – Willie Wong
                          Aug 15 '17 at 13:56








                        3




                        3




                        Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                        – Jack Bauer
                        Jul 30 '15 at 16:53




                        Do you expect an undergraduate or beginning graduate student to understand "complete lattice" ?
                        – Jack Bauer
                        Jul 30 '15 at 16:53




                        1




                        1




                        @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 13 '15 at 15:33




                        @JackBauer: While I don't understand why you are asking about what undergraduate or graduate students can or cannot understand, I do expect a beginning graduate student to understand what a complete lattice is and how it applies to the discussion at hand after learning the definition from, say, Wikipedia.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 13 '15 at 15:33




                        1




                        1




                        @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                        – goblin
                        Feb 28 '16 at 10:06




                        @JackBauer, I learned basic lattice theory while I was an undergraduate, and didn't find it especially difficult, and I'm not especially bright. And yes, I do find it clarifying, in much the same way as basic category theory is quite clarifying. More undergraduates should learn basic lattice theory, I think.
                        – goblin
                        Feb 28 '16 at 10:06




                        1




                        1




                        @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 15 '17 at 13:47




                        @DonShanil: you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but my answer does not presuppose an understanding/familiarity with the notion of a complete lattice, which is why I provided a link to the Wikipedia article. The reader is encouraged to first learn what a complete lattice is and then apply the definition in that context. I happen to believe there is pedagogical value in providing all the resources one would need to discover the answer without making all details explicit.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 15 '17 at 13:47




                        1




                        1




                        @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 15 '17 at 13:56




                        @DonShanil: I want to further point out that my answer was posted after the wonderful (accepted) answer of Michael Hardy. The brevity is entirely intentional and the point of the answer is that there is something much more general at work (lattice theory) which unifies the various concepts involved.
                        – Willie Wong
                        Aug 15 '17 at 13:56











                        0














                        Another way to think about it is via indicator functions: let $f_n$ be the indicator function of the set $X_n$ (i.e. $f_n(x)=1$ if $xin X_n$ and 0 otherwise). Then it is not difficult to check that $lim sup f_n$ is the indicator function of $lim sup X_n$ and similarly for limit inferior.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0














                          Another way to think about it is via indicator functions: let $f_n$ be the indicator function of the set $X_n$ (i.e. $f_n(x)=1$ if $xin X_n$ and 0 otherwise). Then it is not difficult to check that $lim sup f_n$ is the indicator function of $lim sup X_n$ and similarly for limit inferior.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            Another way to think about it is via indicator functions: let $f_n$ be the indicator function of the set $X_n$ (i.e. $f_n(x)=1$ if $xin X_n$ and 0 otherwise). Then it is not difficult to check that $lim sup f_n$ is the indicator function of $lim sup X_n$ and similarly for limit inferior.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Another way to think about it is via indicator functions: let $f_n$ be the indicator function of the set $X_n$ (i.e. $f_n(x)=1$ if $xin X_n$ and 0 otherwise). Then it is not difficult to check that $lim sup f_n$ is the indicator function of $lim sup X_n$ and similarly for limit inferior.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Mar 9 at 16:03









                            random guest

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